Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is preparing an educational session about addictive disorders for nursing staff. Which of the following should the nurse include as an etiological factor of addictive disorder?

• A. Low self-esteem
• B. Family history of addiction
• C. Personality disorders
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Addiction is influenced by various factors, including low self-esteem, family history of addiction, and specific personality traits. Low self-esteem can lead individuals to seek solace in substances, a family history of addiction can increase the likelihood of developing addictive behaviors due to genetic and environmental factors, and certain personality disorders may contribute to addictive tendencies. Therefore, all the factors listed in choices A, B, and C can play a role in the development of addictive disorders. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because addictive disorders are multifactorial, and it is essential to consider a combination of influences rather than isolating a single factor.

2. A nurse in a provider’s office is interviewing a client who is requesting an oral contraceptive. Which of the following findings in the client’s history is a contraindication to the use of combination oral contraceptives?

• A. Thyroid disease
• B. Allergy to penicillin
• C. Impaired liver function
• D. Abnormal blood glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Impaired liver function is a contraindication to combination oral contraceptives. The liver metabolizes hormones, and any impairment can affect the metabolism of hormones, potentially leading to imbalances or toxicity. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combination oral contraceptives.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The nurse notes recurrent variable decelerations of the FHR. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare the equipment necessary to initiate an amnioinfusion
• B. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via a non-rebreather face mask
• C. Discontinue the infusion of oxytocin
• D. Place the client in a left lateral position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the infusion of oxytocin. Oxytocin can lead to uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress, contributing to variable decelerations in fetal heart rate. By stopping the oxytocin infusion, the nurse can promptly assess and manage the fetal heart rate. Choice A, preparing for amnioinfusion, is not the priority when faced with recurrent variable decelerations. Choice B, administering oxygen, is important but addressing the oxytocin infusion issue takes precedence. Choice D, placing the client in a left lateral position, is beneficial for optimizing fetal oxygenation but discontinuing oxytocin is the initial step in managing variable decelerations.

4. A nurse is assessing a client 1 hour after birth and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Take vital signs
• B. Assess lochia
• C. Massage the fundus
• D. Give oxytocin IV bolus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus suggests uterine atony, which is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The initial intervention in this situation is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps the uterus contract, promoting hemostasis and preventing excessive bleeding. Taking vital signs or assessing lochia are important actions but are secondary to addressing uterine atony. Administering oxytocin IV bolus is often done after fundal massage to further enhance uterine contractions.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

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