ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A charge nurse is preparing an educational session about addictive disorders for nursing staff. Which of the following should the nurse include as an etiological factor of addictive disorder?
- A. Low self-esteem
- B. Family history of addiction
- C. Personality disorders
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Addiction is influenced by various factors, including low self-esteem, family history of addiction, and specific personality traits. Low self-esteem can lead individuals to seek solace in substances, a family history of addiction can increase the likelihood of developing addictive behaviors due to genetic and environmental factors, and certain personality disorders may contribute to addictive tendencies. Therefore, all the factors listed in choices A, B, and C can play a role in the development of addictive disorders. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because addictive disorders are multifactorial, and it is essential to consider a combination of influences rather than isolating a single factor.
2. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?
- A. Heart rate 120/min
- B. Urine output 30 mL/hour
- C. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
- D. Skin turgor is normal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Pruritus
- B. Hypertension
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Xerostomia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradykinesia. Bradykinesia, which refers to slowness of movement, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Other common manifestations in Parkinson's disease include tremors, muscle rigidity, orthostatic hypotension, and drooling. Pruritus (choice A) is unrelated to Parkinson's disease. While hypertension (choice B) can coexist with Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction, it is not a specific hallmark manifestation. Xerostomia (choice D) is not a primary symptom associated with Parkinson's disease.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who is lactose intolerant about dietary choices. Which food should the nurse recommend to increase calcium intake?
- A. Spinach
- B. Peanut butter
- C. Ground beef
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spinach. Spinach is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice for individuals with lactose intolerance who need to avoid dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium compared to spinach, and therefore, not the best recommendation for increasing calcium intake in lactose-intolerant individuals.
5. A nurse is assessing a client 1 hour after birth and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Take vital signs
- B. Assess lochia
- C. Massage the fundus
- D. Give oxytocin IV bolus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus suggests uterine atony, which is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The initial intervention in this situation is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps the uterus contract, promoting hemostasis and preventing excessive bleeding. Taking vital signs or assessing lochia are important actions but are secondary to addressing uterine atony. Administering oxytocin IV bolus is often done after fundal massage to further enhance uterine contractions.
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