a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor the clients contractions are occurring every 45 seconds and the fetal heart
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A client is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The contractions are occurring every 45 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180 beats/min. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When contractions occur every 45 seconds with a high fetal heart rate, it indicates uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress. In this situation, the oxytocin infusion should be discontinued immediately to prevent further complications. Increasing or maintaining the infusion would worsen the hyperstimulation and distress. Decreasing the infusion may not be sufficient to address the current situation and could still lead to complications.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed the HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, atorvastatin. Which of the following should be monitored while this medication is prescribed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atorvastatin, an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, can lead to hepatotoxicity. Therefore, monitoring liver function through regular tests is essential. Baseline liver function should be assessed, followed by tests at 12 weeks after starting therapy and periodically thereafter. This monitoring helps detect early signs of liver damage, including jaundice, nausea, and dark urine. Incorrect Choices Rationale: B) Renal function test is not directly affected by atorvastatin. C) Hearing screenings and D) Visual acuity screenings are not indicated for monitoring while on atorvastatin therapy.

3. A client prescribed allopurinol for gout is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Drink at least 2 liters of water per day.' Clients taking allopurinol should be instructed to drink plenty of water to prevent kidney stones, a potential side effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because allopurinol is usually taken without regard to meals. Option C is not directly related to the teaching about allopurinol, as it pertains more to dietary management of gout. Option D is also unrelated to allopurinol use for gout.

4. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

5. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

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