Nursing Elites

1. The nurse instructs the patient about incentive spirometry as part of preoperative teaching. Which phase of the nursing process does this illustrate?

• A. Assessment
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Evaluation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Instructing a patient about incentive spirometry falls under the implementation phase of the nursing process. During this phase, nursing interventions are put into action. Assessment (choice A) involves collecting data about the patient's condition, planning (choice B) involves setting goals and creating a care plan, and evaluation (choice D) involves assessing the outcomes of nursing interventions. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it reflects the active teaching and intervention part of the process.

2. A nurse is planning care for four clients. Which client is the highest priority?

• A. Client with dry, black eschar on the heel
• B. Client wearing an arm cast and reporting numb fingers
• C. Client with reddened skin around the coccyx
• D. Client with frequent incontinence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because numb fingers indicate neurovascular compromise, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The priority in this situation is to assess and address any circulation issues affecting the extremity. Choices A, C, and D are of concern but not as immediate as neurovascular compromise, which requires urgent attention to prevent further complications.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

4. A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer digoxin without any modifications
• B. Administer the medication at a lower dose
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.

5. A healthcare professional is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures body mass index (BMI). Which of the following readings correlates with a BMI of an overweight client?

• A. 18.5
• B. 24.9
• C. 25
• D. 32

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A BMI of 25-29.9 is considered overweight. Therefore, a BMI of 25 correlates with an overweight client. A BMI of 18.5-24.9 indicates a healthy weight. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall into the healthy weight or obese categories, not overweight.

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