ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. The nurse instructs the patient about incentive spirometry as part of preoperative teaching. Which phase of the nursing process does this illustrate?
- A. Assessment
- B. Planning
- C. Implementation
- D. Evaluation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Instructing a patient about incentive spirometry falls under the implementation phase of the nursing process. During this phase, nursing interventions are put into action. Assessment (choice A) involves collecting data about the patient's condition, planning (choice B) involves setting goals and creating a care plan, and evaluation (choice D) involves assessing the outcomes of nursing interventions. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it reflects the active teaching and intervention part of the process.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medication class, benzodiazepines. The nurse would use caution when administering benzodiazepines to which of the clients below?
- A. A client with glaucoma
- B. A client with renal failure
- C. A client with hypertension
- D. A client with insomnia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Benzodiazepines can increase intraocular pressure, which is why they must be used cautiously in patients with glaucoma. In clients with this condition, benzodiazepines can potentially worsen symptoms and lead to further complications involving the eyes. Therefore, administering benzodiazepines to a client with glaucoma should be done with caution. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindicated with benzodiazepines, making them less likely to cause harm compared to administering to a client with glaucoma.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Serum potassium levels
- B. Liver function
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor serum potassium levels. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide primarily affects potassium excretion rather than liver function, blood glucose levels, or calcium levels.
4. A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following is an indication of magnesium toxicity?
- A. Blood glucose of 160 mg/dL
- B. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
- C. Systolic BP of 140 mm Hg
- D. Respiratory rate of 20/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine output of 20 mL/hour. Urine output below 30 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity due to the risk of accumulation in the body. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, systolic blood pressure, and normal respiratory rate are not specific signs of magnesium toxicity.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of potassium chloride. Which of the following should the professional do?
- A. Administer it as a bolus
- B. Dilute the medication
- C. Give it rapidly
- D. Monitor respiratory rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: Dilute the medication. Potassium chloride should always be diluted before administration to avoid irritation and complications. Choice A is incorrect because administering it as a bolus can lead to adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect as giving it rapidly can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring the respiratory rate is not directly related to administering potassium chloride.
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