Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will stop taking the medication when I feel better.
• B. I will avoid caffeine while taking this medication.
• C. I will wear sunscreen when going outside.
• D. I will drink plenty of fluids while on this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients should be instructed to complete the entire course of antibiotics, even if they start feeling better, to prevent antibiotic resistance and recurrence of infection.

2. A client is prescribed tramadol for pain management. Which of the following should the nurse educate the client about?

• A. It is a non-opioid analgesic
• B. It can cause sedation
• C. It has no risk for dependence
• D. It can be taken as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tramadol can cause sedation, so the nurse should educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because tramadol is actually an opioid analgesic. Choice C is incorrect as tramadol does carry a risk for dependence, especially with prolonged use. Choice D is not entirely accurate as tramadol is usually prescribed on a scheduled basis rather than as needed.

3. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

• A. Increased blood pressure
• B. Pulse deficit
• C. Normal heart rate
• D. Elevated oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who reports burning around the peripheral IV site. Which finding should the nurse identify as a manifestation of infiltration?

• A. Redness at the site
• B. Warmth around the site
• C. Edema
• D. Pain at the site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Edema at the IV site indicates that IV solution has leaked into the extravascular tissue, which is a sign of infiltration. Redness, warmth, and pain at the site are more indicative of phlebitis, not infiltration. Phlebitis is characterized by redness, warmth, and pain along the vein where the IV is placed, while infiltration involves the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissue.

5. A client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to best promote optimal cardiac output?

• A. The chest
• B. Standing
• C. Supine
• D. Left lateral

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the client in the left lateral position promotes optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving blood flow to the heart and fetus. Choice A, 'The chest,' is incorrect as it does not describe a position that benefits cardiac output. Choice B, 'Standing,' is incorrect as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Choice C, 'Supine,' is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in clients with cardiac disease, as it can compress the vena cava and decrease cardiac output.

Similar Questions