ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will stop taking the medication when I feel better.
- B. I will avoid caffeine while taking this medication.
- C. I will wear sunscreen when going outside.
- D. I will drink plenty of fluids while on this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients should be instructed to complete the entire course of antibiotics, even if they start feeling better, to prevent antibiotic resistance and recurrence of infection.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of sertraline. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess first?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Heart rate
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Mood changes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering sertraline, assessing blood pressure is crucial as this medication can potentially affect blood pressure levels. Monitoring blood pressure before giving sertraline helps ensure patient safety and allows for appropriate interventions if any significant changes are noted. Heart rate, respiratory rate, and mood changes are important assessments but are not typically the first priority when administering sertraline. While heart rate and respiratory rate can also be affected by sertraline, blood pressure assessment is a higher priority due to the medication's known effects on blood pressure regulation.
3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?
- A. Assess lung sounds and monitor oxygen saturation
- B. Monitor for fever and sputum production
- C. Auscultate heart sounds and check for cyanosis
- D. Monitor for chest pain and administer oxygen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.
4. A client who is 8 hours postpartum asks the nurse if she will need to receive Rh immune globulin. The client is gravida 2, para 2, and her blood type is AB negative. The newborn’s blood type is B positive. Which of the following statements is appropriate?
- A. You only need to receive Rh immune globulin if you have a positive blood type.
- B. You should receive Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery.
- C. Both you and your baby should receive Rh immune globulin at your 6-week appointment.
- D. Immune globulin is not necessary since this is your second pregnancy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rh-negative mothers who give birth to an Rh-positive baby should receive Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery to prevent the development of antibodies in future pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh-negative individuals are the ones who require Rh immune globulin. Choice C is incorrect as the administration of Rh immune globulin is time-sensitive and not typically scheduled for a 6-week appointment. Choice D is incorrect because Rh immune globulin is necessary to prevent sensitization regardless of the number of pregnancies.
5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.020
- B. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
- C. Decreased skin turgor
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.
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