Nursing Elites

1. A client is being discharged with a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Monitor your weight daily.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Change positions slowly.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include for a client being discharged with a prescription for furosemide is to 'Change positions slowly.' Furosemide, a diuretic, can cause dizziness and orthostatic hypotension, increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the body can adjust to postural changes gradually, reducing the likelihood of falls and related injuries.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of COPD is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of high-calorie foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of high-protein foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client with a new diagnosis of COPD is that they should increase their intake of high-calorie foods. This is important to help maintain energy levels and manage weight. COPD can lead to increased energy expenditure due to the increased work of breathing, making it crucial to consume adequate calories for energy. High-calorie foods can help prevent weight loss and support overall nutritional status in COPD patients. Choice B is incorrect because high-protein foods are important for maintaining muscle mass in COPD patients. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid foods that contain lactose unless the client is lactose intolerant. Choice D is incorrect as increasing high-fiber foods may exacerbate symptoms like bloating and gas in COPD patients.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

4. When planning care for a client with a pressure ulcer, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Massage the reddened area.
• B. Apply a donut-shaped cushion.
• C. Reposition the client every 3 hours.
• D. Use a transparent film dressing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a pressure ulcer is to use a transparent film dressing. This dressing provides a protective barrier against external contaminants while allowing for wound inspection, promoting healing. Massaging the reddened area can cause further damage to the skin and should be avoided. Donut-shaped cushions can increase pressure on the ulcer site rather than alleviate it. Repositioning the client every 2 hours is a preventive measure for pressure ulcers, but once an ulcer has developed, using a transparent film dressing is a more appropriate intervention to facilitate healing and protect the wound site.

5. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Massage the reddened area.
• B. Apply a heating pad to the area.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• D. Reposition the client every 2 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers from worsening. This action helps relieve pressure on specific areas, improving circulation and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Massaging the reddened area can further damage the skin, applying heat can increase the risk of skin breakdown, and elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees may not directly address the pressure ulcer prevention. Proper positioning is essential to avoid prolonged pressure on the affected areas and promote healing.

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