ATI LPN
LPN Nursing Fundamentals
1. When teaching a client with a new diagnosis of heart failure about dietary management, which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
- B. Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.
- C. Avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. Increase your intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease the intake of sodium-rich foods. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing heart failure as it helps to reduce fluid retention and alleviate symptoms. Excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup in the body, worsening heart failure. Therefore, advising the client to decrease sodium-rich foods is essential for their overall health and management of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of sodium-rich foods (Choice A) would worsen fluid retention and heart failure symptoms. Avoiding foods that contain lactose (Choice C) is not directly related to heart failure management through sodium restriction. Increasing intake of dairy products (Choice D) may not be suitable for all heart failure patients, especially if they need to limit saturated fats or cholesterol in their diet.
2. A client with iron-deficiency anemia is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should increase my intake of foods high in iron.
- B. I should decrease my intake of foods high in iron.
- C. I should increase my intake of foods high in calcium.
- D. I should decrease my intake of foods high in calcium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I should increase my intake of foods high in iron.' Iron-deficiency anemia is managed by increasing the consumption of iron-rich foods to improve iron levels in the body. Foods high in iron include red meat, poultry, fish, beans, lentils, and iron-fortified cereals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because decreasing intake of iron-rich foods or increasing intake of calcium-rich foods would not address the deficiency in iron levels that characterizes iron-deficiency anemia.
3. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°
- B. Flush the tube with 50 mL of water every 2 hours
- C. Replace the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours
- D. Check the client's gastric residual every 8 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30° is the correct action to take when a client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. This position helps prevent aspiration of the enteral feedings into the lungs, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, elevating the head of the bed promotes proper digestion and absorption of the feedings by utilizing gravity to facilitate movement into the stomach and through the gastrointestinal tract. Flushing the tube with water every 2 hours (Choice B) is not necessary for continuous feedings and may disrupt the feeding schedule. Replacing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours (Choice C) is not the standard recommendation unless there are specific concerns or complications. Checking the client's gastric residual every 8 hours (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings.
4. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Tremors
- B. Urine retention
- C. Kussmaul respirations
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intradermal injection. Which of the following actions should the professional take?
- A. Use a tuberculin syringe.
- B. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
- C. Use a 1-inch needle.
- D. Aspirate before injecting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering an intradermal injection, a tuberculin syringe is the appropriate choice due to its small size and precise measurement markings, which are essential for accurately delivering the medication into the dermis layer of the skin. Using a 1-inch needle (choice C) is more common for subcutaneous injections, while inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle (choice B) is typical for intramuscular injections. Aspirating before injecting (choice D) is not necessary for intradermal injections, as the goal is to deliver the medication into the dermis rather than a blood vessel.
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