ATI LPN
LPN Nursing Fundamentals
1. A client with a new diagnosis of celiac disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.
- B. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
- C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should avoid foods that contain gluten.' Gluten is a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye, which can trigger an immune response in individuals with celiac disease. Avoiding gluten-containing foods is crucial to managing the condition and preventing symptoms and complications associated with celiac disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing dairy intake (Choice B) is not necessary for celiac disease management. Avoiding lactose (Choice C) is relevant for individuals with lactose intolerance, not celiac disease. While high-fiber foods (Choice D) are generally beneficial for health, they are not specifically indicated for celiac disease management.
2. A client who has just started taking levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease reports experiencing nausea. What should the nurse recommend to the client?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Consume a low-protein snack with the medication.
- C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- D. Stop taking the medication and notify your healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet). Consuming a low-protein snack with the medication can help reduce nausea. The protein in food can compete with levodopa for absorption, so taking it with a low-protein snack may improve its effectiveness and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option A is incorrect as taking the medication on an empty stomach may exacerbate nausea. Option C is incorrect because increasing intake of dairy products is not recommended to alleviate nausea. Option D is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without healthcare provider guidance can lead to adverse effects.
3. A client is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the client include?
- A. Use a condom with sexual intercourse
- B. Avoid bubble bath solution when taking a tub bath
- C. Wipe from front to back when performing perineal hygiene
- D. Keep a daily record of fetal kick counts
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Keeping a daily record of fetal kick counts is crucial for clients with premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation as it helps monitor fetal well-being. This activity enables the client to assess the frequency and strength of fetal movements, which can provide important information about the fetus' health and development. Other options such as using a condom with sexual intercourse, avoiding bubble bath solution, and wiping from front to back are important for general perinatal care but are not specifically related to managing premature rupture of membranes.
4. What are the signs of an acute myocardial infarction?
- A. Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath
- B. Nausea, vomiting, and high fever
- C. Headache, confusion, and low blood pressure
- D. Increased heart rate and bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath. These are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction. Choice B is incorrect because nausea, vomiting, and high fever are not typical signs of a heart attack. Choice C is incorrect as headache, confusion, and low blood pressure are not specific to myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because an acute myocardial infarction typically presents with an increased heart rate, not bradycardia.
5. What is the appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing hypovolemic shock?
- A. Administer IV fluids
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
- D. Administer oxygen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient experiencing hypovolemic shock is to administer IV fluids. In hypovolemic shock, there is a significant loss of circulating blood volume leading to inadequate perfusion to tissues. Administering IV fluids is crucial to restore blood volume and improve tissue perfusion. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but not the primary intervention in hypovolemic shock. Placing the patient in Trendelenburg position (choice C) can worsen outcomes by increasing intracranial pressure and is no longer recommended. Administering oxygen (choice D) is beneficial for many conditions but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate circulating blood volume in hypovolemic shock.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99