Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid taking antacids with this medication.
• C. Monitor your pulse rate daily.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor your pulse rate daily.' Monitoring the pulse rate daily is crucial when taking digoxin as it helps in early detection of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause toxicity, which may manifest as changes in the heart rate, making monitoring the pulse rate an essential part of managing the medication. It is important for the client to be aware of their normal pulse rate and report any significant changes to their healthcare provider promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking digoxin at bedtime is not a specific instruction related to monitoring its effects. Avoiding antacids is relevant for some medications, but not a key concern with digoxin. Increasing potassium-rich foods may interact with digoxin due to its effect on potassium levels, but monitoring the pulse rate is a more direct and immediate need for safety.

2. A client has a history of left-sided heart failure. The nurse should look for the presence of which finding to determine whether the problem is currently active?

• A. Presence of ascites
• B. Bilateral lung crackles
• C. Jugular vein distention
• D. Pedal edema bilaterally

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a history of left-sided heart failure, the presence of bilateral lung crackles is a key finding to determine if the condition is currently active. Crackles in the lungs indicate fluid accumulation, a common sign of left-sided heart failure due to pulmonary congestion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because ascites, jugular vein distention, and pedal edema are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure.

3. The client is receiving intravenous heparin for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. Which medication should the nurse ensure is readily available?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, used to reverse its anticoagulant effects. It should be readily available in case of bleeding complications, as it can rapidly neutralize the effects of heparin and prevent excessive bleeding. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin (Choice B). Calcium gluconate is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not indicated for heparin therapy (Choice C). Magnesium sulfate is used for conditions like preeclampsia and eclampsia, not for reversing heparin effects (Choice D).

4. A client with peripheral artery disease (PAD) complains of pain in the legs while walking. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN reinforce to help alleviate the client's symptoms?

• A. Walk until the pain becomes severe, then rest.
• B. Perform leg exercises while sitting.
• C. Elevate the legs on pillows while resting.
• D. Take frequent breaks and walk shorter distances.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take frequent breaks and walk shorter distances. This instruction helps alleviate symptoms in clients with peripheral artery disease (PAD) by allowing them to manage pain and discomfort more effectively. Option A is incorrect as waiting for the pain to become severe before resting can exacerbate symptoms. Option B, performing leg exercises while sitting, may not directly address the issue of pain during walking. Option C, elevating the legs on pillows while resting, is beneficial for other conditions like edema but may not specifically help alleviate pain while walking in PAD clients.

5. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?

• A. Serum troponin
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.

Similar Questions