Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction has a new activity prescription allowing the client to have bathroom privileges. As the client stands and begins to walk, the client begins to complain of chest pain. The nurse should take which action?

• A. Assist the client to get back into bed.
• B. Report the chest pain episode to the healthcare provider.
• C. Tell the client to stand still and take the client's blood pressure.
• D. Give a nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablet and assist the client to the bathroom.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with myocardial infarction experiencing chest pain during activity, the priority action is to stop the activity immediately to reduce the heart's workload and oxygen demand. Assisting the client back to bed helps in reducing stress on the heart and can prevent worsening of the condition. Reporting the chest pain episode to the healthcare provider is important but should not delay taking immediate action to alleviate symptoms. Taking the client's blood pressure and administering nitroglycerin are secondary actions after ensuring the client's safety and comfort. Therefore, the correct action is to assist the client back into bed.

2. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which medication would the nurse expect to be administered to help reduce myocardial oxygen demand?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Morphine
• C. Atropine
• D. Lidocaine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of an acute myocardial infarction (MI), morphine is administered to relieve pain and reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By alleviating pain and anxiety, morphine helps reduce oxygen demand on the heart, which is beneficial in the setting of an MI. Aspirin, commonly used for its antiplatelet effects, helps inhibit platelet aggregation and is crucial in the management of MI to prevent further clot formation. Atropine is a medication used to treat symptomatic bradycardia by increasing heart rate, not commonly indicated in the management of acute MI. Lidocaine is used for ventricular dysrhythmias and is not typically given to reduce myocardial oxygen demand in an acute MI scenario.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
• B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
• D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.

4. A client with hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. What instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase potassium intake in the diet.
• C. Weigh yourself daily.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 2 liters per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh oneself daily. This instruction is important as daily weights help monitor fluid loss and are crucial for detecting early signs of fluid imbalance when taking a diuretic. Weighing daily allows for timely adjustments in treatment and helps prevent complications associated with fluid imbalance. Choice A is not directly related to the client's need for monitoring fluid balance. Choice B, although important for some diuretics, is not specific to thiazide diuretics. Choice D is not appropriate as limiting fluid intake without proper monitoring can lead to dehydration, especially when taking diuretics.

5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works on the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps assess its anticoagulant effect. Therapeutic levels of aPTT for clients on heparin therapy are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, which acts on the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Complete blood count (CBC) is not specific for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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