a client is admitted to the hospital with a venous stasis leg ulcer the nurse inspects the ulcer expecting to note which observation
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology

1. A client is admitted to the hospital with a venous stasis leg ulcer. The nurse inspects the ulcer expecting to note which observation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a venous stasis leg ulcer, the nurse should expect to note a brownish or 'brawny' appearance. This discoloration is often due to hemosiderin deposits. The correct answer is not A because venous stasis ulcers typically do not have a pale-colored base. Choice B is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers usually have irregular, shallow edges, not deep and even edges. Choice C is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers often have excess granulation tissue, not little granulation tissue. Recognizing the brownish or 'brawny' appearance is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of venous stasis leg ulcers.

2. A client has a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Monitor your blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed metoprolol, it is important to monitor blood pressure daily because the medication can cause hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. Regular monitoring allows for the early detection of any potential issues and adjustment of treatment if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking metoprolol with food is not necessary, increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to metoprolol therapy, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for certain other medications that interact with grapefruit.

3. A client has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for a dry cough. Captopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. If a dry cough develops, it should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly, as it may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect as hypokalemia is not a common side effect of captopril. Choice C is incorrect as captopril is typically taken during the day and not specifically at bedtime.

4. A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the abdomen. In what position should the nurse immediately place the client to promote maintenance of the client's blood pressure above a systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with profuse bleeding from a gunshot wound to the abdomen, maintaining the client in a supine position is essential to manage blood pressure. This position helps in reducing diaphragmatic pressure and allows for proper visualization of the wound, aiding in prompt assessment and intervention to control the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition. Placing the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position (Choice A) could worsen the bleeding by increasing intrathoracic pressure and venous return, potentially leading to further hemorrhage. Turning the client prone (Choice B) may not be feasible in this situation and can delay essential interventions. Placing the client on the right side (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to manage the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition.

5. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

Similar Questions

A hypertensive client who has been taking metoprolol (Lopressor) has been prescribed to decrease the dose of the medication. The client asks the nurse why this must be done over a period of 1 to 2 weeks. In formulating a response, the nurse incorporates the understanding that abrupt withdrawal could affect the client in which way?
A client with a history of hypertension is being discharged on a low-sodium diet. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A client with coronary artery disease is prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The nurse should reinforce which dietary selection made by the client?
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A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

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