Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor). The nurse should monitor the client for which side effect?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for bradycardia, which is a potential side effect of metoprolol. Bradycardia refers to a heart rate that is slower than normal, and it can be a concern when administering medications like metoprolol that affect heart rate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) are not typically associated with metoprolol use. In fact, metoprolol is used to treat hypertension and certain heart conditions by lowering heart rate and blood pressure.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) with a spacer. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce to ensure correct use?

• A. Inhale deeply and slowly after activating the MDI.
• B. Hold the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication.
• C. Rinse the mouth immediately after using the MDI.
• D. Exhale fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inhaling deeply and slowly after activating the MDI is the correct instruction to ensure effective delivery of the medication to the lungs. This technique helps the medication reach the lower airways where it can be most beneficial in managing COPD symptoms. Inhaling too quickly or not deeply enough may result in improper drug delivery and reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Holding the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication (Choice B) may not be necessary and could cause discomfort without additional benefits. Rinsing the mouth immediately after using the MDI (Choice C) is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Exhaling fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth (Choice D) is not ideal as it may result in inadequate medication delivery to the lungs.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Heat intolerance
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heat intolerance. Heat intolerance is a concerning sign of levothyroxine toxicity and should be reported to the provider promptly. Levothyroxine is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing the body's thyroid hormones. When a client experiences heat intolerance, it can indicate that the dose of levothyroxine is too high, leading to hyperthyroidism symptoms. Weight gain, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure are not typically associated with levothyroxine toxicity; instead, they are more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is being discharged on a low-sodium diet. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will use fresh herbs and spices instead of salt.
• B. I will avoid canned soups and processed foods.
• C. I can eat as much bacon and sausage as I want because they taste good.
• D. I will read food labels to check for sodium content.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because bacon and sausage are high in sodium, which contradicts the low-sodium diet requirement. Consuming them freely would contribute to increased sodium intake, which is not suitable for managing hypertension. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate appropriate understanding and actions for a low-sodium diet, such as using alternatives to salt, avoiding processed foods, and checking food labels for sodium content.

5. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

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