Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor). The nurse should monitor the client for which side effect?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for bradycardia, which is a potential side effect of metoprolol. Bradycardia refers to a heart rate that is slower than normal, and it can be a concern when administering medications like metoprolol that affect heart rate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) are not typically associated with metoprolol use. In fact, metoprolol is used to treat hypertension and certain heart conditions by lowering heart rate and blood pressure.

2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should include which instruction in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day
• B. Avoid green leafy vegetables in your diet
• C. Increase your intake of vitamin K-rich foods
• D. Stop the medication if you notice any bruising

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taking warfarin at the same time each day is crucial to maintain consistent blood levels and ensure the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Consistent timing helps in monitoring and adjusting the dosage as needed to keep the international normalized ratio (INR) within the therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding green leafy vegetables is a misconception; while they are high in vitamin K which antagonizes warfarin, they should not be avoided but consumed in moderation. Increasing vitamin K-rich foods can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness. Stopping the medication due to bruising can be dangerous as it may indicate a clotting problem that the medication is intended to prevent.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been taking lisinopril. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. It is essential to report this to the healthcare provider as it may indicate the need to discontinue the medication to prevent further complications such as angioedema or cough that can persist for weeks to months after stopping the medication. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is not typically associated with lisinopril use; instead, it is a possible side effect of medications like potassium-sparing diuretics. Choice C, elevated blood pressure, would not be a concerning finding as lisinopril is often prescribed to lower blood pressure. Choice D, increased appetite, is not a common side effect of lisinopril and would not typically warrant immediate reporting.

4. The client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer another dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Have the client lie down and rest.
• D. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin, it may indicate a myocardial infarction, also known as a heart attack. In this situation, the nurse should immediately notify the healthcare provider to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate intervention. Delay in seeking medical attention for chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin can be life-threatening, as it might be a sign of a more serious cardiac event. Administering another dose of nitroglycerin (Choice A) without further evaluation can be risky, as the client's condition may require a different intervention. Having the client lie down and rest (Choice C) or encouraging deep breaths (Choice D) are not appropriate actions in this scenario where a more serious cardiac event needs to be ruled out.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to assist in the care of a client who has just returned from coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which is the priority action?

• A. Monitor the client's urine output.
• B. Check the client's surgical dressing.
• C. Measure the client's blood pressure.
• D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the client's level of consciousness is the priority action post-CABG surgery to monitor for signs of cerebral hypoxia or other complications that require immediate intervention. Changes in the client's level of consciousness can indicate neurological deterioration, which is critical to address promptly in this postoperative period. Monitoring urine output, checking surgical dressing, and measuring blood pressure are important aspects of postoperative care but assessing the client's level of consciousness takes precedence as it provides crucial information about the client's neurological status and the need for urgent intervention.

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