ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following a below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid sitting in a chair for prolonged periods.
- B. Sleep with a pillow under the residual limb.
- C. Elevate the limb continuously for the first 48 hours.
- D. Apply lotion to the residual limb daily.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sitting in a chair for prolonged periods. This is important to prevent contractures from developing in the residual limb. Sleeping with a pillow under the residual limb can contribute to contracture formation rather than prevent it. While elevation of the limb is important for reducing swelling and promoting circulation, continuous elevation for 48 hours is not necessary and may not be practical. Applying lotion to the residual limb daily is generally not recommended immediately post-amputation as the wound site needs to heal without interference from lotions or creams.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?
- A. Confusion
- B. Thirst
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Shakiness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.
3. A charge nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse on how to clean surfaces contaminated with blood. Which of the following agents should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Hydrogen peroxide
- B. Chlorhexidine
- C. Isopropyl alcohol
- D. Chlorine bleach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlorine bleach is the recommended agent for cleaning blood spills due to its effectiveness in killing bloodborne pathogens like HIV and hepatitis B. Hydrogen peroxide, Chlorhexidine, and Isopropyl alcohol are not as effective as chlorine bleach in disinfecting surfaces contaminated with blood and eliminating bloodborne pathogens, making them incorrect choices.
4. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following is a potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through urine, causing hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not a side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypernatremia (choice D) are related to sodium levels rather than potassium, and they are not typically associated with furosemide use.
5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn who has hyperbilirubinemia and a prescription for phototherapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Check the newborn's temperature every 4 hours
- B. Apply moisturizing lotion to the newborn's skin every 4 hours
- C. Give the newborn 1 oz of glucose water every 4 hours
- D. Reposition the newborn every 2 to 3 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Repositioning the newborn every 2 to 3 hours during phototherapy is important to expose all areas of the skin to light and facilitate the breakdown of bilirubin. Checking the newborn's temperature is important, but it should be done more frequently, such as every 4 hours, to monitor for any signs of overheating or hypothermia. Applying moisturizing lotion is not indicated during phototherapy as it may interfere with the treatment. Giving glucose water is not necessary for the management of hyperbilirubinemia.
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