a nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy that is experiencing neutropenia which of the following should the nurse include in this clients
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing neutropenia. Which of the following should the nurse include in this client's education?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with neutropenia have a weakened immune system, making them susceptible to infections. Avoiding crowded events helps reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens, thereby minimizing the chance of infections. Tracking oral temperature is important for detecting fever early, which is a sign of infection and requires immediate medical attention. While gardening can be a good form of exercise, clients with neutropenia should avoid it due to the risk of exposure to bacteria and fungi present in soil. Eating fresh fruits and vegetables is generally encouraged for overall health but may carry a risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with neutropenia.

2. A nurse on a postpartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should see the client saturating a perineal pad every hour first. This client may be experiencing postpartum hemorrhage, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention. The other options describe clients with less urgent needs. The client needing Rho(D) immune globulin can wait, the breast fullness in the client who gave birth 3 days ago can be addressed after managing the postpartum hemorrhage, and an increase in urinary output in a client who gave birth 12 hours ago is not indicative of an immediate emergency like postpartum hemorrhage.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.

4. A client is being educated by a nurse on nutritional intake. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Carbohydrates should make up 45-65% of daily caloric intake as they are the body’s main source of energy. This aligns with general dietary recommendations. Choice B is incorrect as protein should typically make up about 10-35% of daily caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is also incorrect, as carbohydrates should ideally be between 45-65%, not 30%. Choice D is incorrect because protein should generally account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of enalapril. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to manage hypertension. It is crucial to evaluate the patient's blood pressure before administering enalapril to ensure it is within safe limits. Assessing other parameters like heart rate, serum creatinine, and potassium levels is also important but assessing blood pressure takes precedence due to the medication's mechanism of action and potential effects on blood pressure regulation.

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