Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives a change-of-shift report. Which of the following clients should the nurse attend to first?

• A. A client who reports tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy
• B. A client who has dark, foul-smelling urine with a urine output of 320 mL in the last 8 hr
• C. A client who is in a long leg cast and reports cool feet bilaterally
• D. A client who has a productive cough and an oral temperature of 36°C (96.8°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cool feet bilaterally in a client with a long leg cast may indicate compromised circulation, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia but does not require immediate attention. Dark, foul-smelling urine with decreased urine output indicates a possible urinary tract infection or dehydration but can be addressed after attending to the client with compromised circulation. A productive cough and a normal oral temperature do not suggest an urgent condition compared to compromised circulation in a client with a long leg cast.

2. A nurse is completing an assessment of a newborn who is 2 hours old. Which of the following findings is indicative of cold stress?

• A. Respiratory rate of 60 per minute
• B. Jitteriness of the hands
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bounding peripheral pulses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Jitteriness of the hands is a classic sign of cold stress in newborns, indicating that the infant is having difficulty maintaining a stable body temperature. Cold stress can lead to hypoglycemia and increased oxygen consumption. The other options (A, C, and D) are not directly associated with cold stress in newborns. A respiratory rate of 60 per minute may be within the normal range for a newborn. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and bounding peripheral pulses are not specific signs of cold stress in newborns.

3. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 1 hour old and has a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with periods of apnea lasting up to 10 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Stimulate the newborn
• C. Initiate positive pressure ventilation
• D. Continue routine monitoring

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with occasional periods of apnea lasting less than 15 seconds is normal for a newborn. The nurse should continue routine monitoring unless the apneic periods become prolonged or the newborn shows signs of respiratory distress. Administering oxygen or initiating positive pressure ventilation is not indicated in this scenario as the newborn's respiratory rate and apneic episodes are within normal limits for their age. Stimulating the newborn is also unnecessary since the described parameters fall within the expected range for a 1-hour-old infant.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

5. A nurse is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?

• A. Propofol
• B. Pancuronium
• C. Promethazine
• D. Pentoxifylline

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used to induce moderate sedation for procedures like a colonoscopy. This medication provides rapid onset and recovery, making it an ideal choice for such procedures. Choice B, Pancuronium, is a neuromuscular blocking agent used for muscle relaxation during surgery and would not be appropriate for sedation during a colonoscopy. Choice C, Promethazine, is an antihistamine used for nausea and motion sickness, not for anesthesia. Choice D, Pentoxifylline, is a medication used to improve blood flow in patients with circulation problems and is not indicated for anesthesia during a colonoscopy.

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