Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives a change-of-shift report. Which of the following clients should the nurse attend to first?

• A. A client who reports tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy
• B. A client who has dark, foul-smelling urine with a urine output of 320 mL in the last 8 hr
• C. A client who is in a long leg cast and reports cool feet bilaterally
• D. A client who has a productive cough and an oral temperature of 36°C (96.8°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cool feet bilaterally in a client with a long leg cast may indicate compromised circulation, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia but does not require immediate attention. Dark, foul-smelling urine with decreased urine output indicates a possible urinary tract infection or dehydration but can be addressed after attending to the client with compromised circulation. A productive cough and a normal oral temperature do not suggest an urgent condition compared to compromised circulation in a client with a long leg cast.

2. A client is experiencing urinary incontinence, and a nurse is providing care. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?

• A. Drink large amounts of water before bedtime
• B. Perform Kegel exercises regularly
• C. Limit fiber intake in the diet to avoid bowel irritation
• D. Increase intake of caffeinated and carbonated beverages

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client experiencing urinary incontinence is to perform Kegel exercises regularly. These exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, improving bladder control and reducing urinary incontinence. Option A is incorrect because drinking large amounts of water before bedtime can worsen urinary incontinence by increasing urine production. Option C is incorrect as fiber is important for bowel health and limiting it may not be beneficial for the client. Option D is incorrect as caffeinated and carbonated beverages can irritate the bladder and worsen urinary incontinence, so they should be avoided.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain. The client's respiratory rate has decreased from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Flumazenil
• C. Activated charcoal
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid overdose, including hydromorphone. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, and a significant decrease in respiratory rate from 16 to 6 breaths per minute indicates respiratory compromise. Naloxone should be administered promptly to reverse the effects of the opioid and restore normal respiratory function. Flumazenil (Choice B) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for gastrointestinal decontamination in cases of overdose with certain substances, but it is not the appropriate intervention for opioid-induced respiratory depression. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and has no role in managing opioid overdose or respiratory depression.

4. A nurse is planning care for an adolescent client with chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage a diet high in calcium
• B. Provide a diet high in potassium
• C. Ensure increased fluid intake
• D. Restrict protein intake to the RDA

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, it is essential to restrict protein intake to the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) to reduce the accumulation of waste products that the kidneys can no longer effectively eliminate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in chronic renal failure, high calcium, high potassium, and increased fluid intake can further strain the kidneys and worsen the condition.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

Similar Questions