Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client after a myocardial infarction. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Resume normal activities immediately
• B. Monitor for chest pain and report any recurrence
• C. Avoid all physical activity for 6 months
• D. Take medications only as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for chest pain and report any recurrence.' After a myocardial infarction, it is crucial for clients to be vigilant about any signs of chest pain as it could indicate a recurrent event. Prompt reporting of chest pain can lead to timely intervention, preventing further complications. Choice A is incorrect because resuming normal activities immediately after a heart attack can be dangerous and is not recommended. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding all physical activity for 6 months is excessive and can lead to deconditioning. Choice D is incorrect as medications prescribed after a myocardial infarction are usually meant to be taken regularly as prescribed, not just as needed.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with Alzheimer's disease. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan to support the client’s cognitive function?

• A. Place a daily calendar in the kitchen
• B. Replace buttoned clothing with zippered items
• C. Replace carpet with hardwood floors
• D. Create variation in the daily routine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a daily calendar in the kitchen is beneficial for clients with Alzheimer's disease as it helps in orienting them to time and enhances cognitive function. This visual aid can assist in keeping track of days and activities. Choice B, replacing buttoned clothing with zippered items, is more related to promoting independence in dressing rather than directly supporting cognitive function. Choice C, replacing carpet with hardwood floors, focuses on safety and mobility rather than cognitive function. Choice D, creating variation in the daily routine, may be helpful for engagement and stimulation but does not directly address cognitive function as effectively as using a daily calendar.

3. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Hypertension
• C. Pruritus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

4. A nurse is reviewing the ABG results of a client with chronic emphysema. Which result suggests the need for further treatment?

• A. PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg
• B. PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg
• C. HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L
• D. pH level of 7.37

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg is elevated, indicating carbon dioxide retention, a common complication of emphysema that necessitates intervention. Elevated PaCO2 can lead to respiratory acidosis, reflecting inadequate ventilation. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges. A PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg is acceptable. An HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L falls within the normal range, suggesting adequate compensation. A pH level of 7.37 is also within the normal range, indicating the client's acid-base balance is maintained.

5. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
• B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours after surgery
• C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 bpm
• D. Client who has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.

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