ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client after a myocardial infarction. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Resume normal activities immediately
- B. Monitor for chest pain and report any recurrence
- C. Avoid all physical activity for 6 months
- D. Take medications only as needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for chest pain and report any recurrence.' After a myocardial infarction, it is crucial for clients to be vigilant about any signs of chest pain as it could indicate a recurrent event. Prompt reporting of chest pain can lead to timely intervention, preventing further complications. Choice A is incorrect because resuming normal activities immediately after a heart attack can be dangerous and is not recommended. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding all physical activity for 6 months is excessive and can lead to deconditioning. Choice D is incorrect as medications prescribed after a myocardial infarction are usually meant to be taken regularly as prescribed, not just as needed.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Decreased appetite
- C. Fatigue
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct! In a client with congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, decreased appetite, and fatigue are important signs to monitor as they can indicate worsening heart failure. Peripheral edema is a common sign of fluid retention due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, decreased appetite may indicate worsening heart function, and fatigue can be a result of inadequate cardiac output. Monitoring all these signs is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one symptom may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's condition.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication to this vaccine?
- A. The possibility of pregnancy within 4 weeks
- B. Client allergy to strawberry
- C. Client history of genital herpes
- D. The possibility of overseas travel in the next month
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The MMR vaccine is contraindicated in pregnant women due to the risk of fetal harm. It is recommended that women avoid becoming pregnant for at least 4 weeks after receiving the vaccine. Choice B, client allergy to strawberry, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice C, client history of genital herpes, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice D, the possibility of overseas travel in the next month, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine.
4. A nurse receives a change-of-shift report. Which of the following clients should the nurse attend to first?
- A. A client who reports tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy
- B. A client who has dark, foul-smelling urine with a urine output of 320 mL in the last 8 hr
- C. A client who is in a long leg cast and reports cool feet bilaterally
- D. A client who has a productive cough and an oral temperature of 36°C (96.8°F)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cool feet bilaterally in a client with a long leg cast may indicate compromised circulation, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia but does not require immediate attention. Dark, foul-smelling urine with decreased urine output indicates a possible urinary tract infection or dehydration but can be addressed after attending to the client with compromised circulation. A productive cough and a normal oral temperature do not suggest an urgent condition compared to compromised circulation in a client with a long leg cast.
5. A nurse is admitting a client who is in labor and at 38 weeks of gestation to the maternal newborn unit. The client has a history of herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2). Which of the following questions is most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. How far apart are your contractions?
- C. Do you have any active lesions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask the client in this scenario is whether they have any active lesions. Active lesions from HSV-2 during labor increase the risk of neonatal transmission, which would necessitate a cesarean section to prevent the infant from contracting the virus during delivery. Asking about the presence of active lesions is crucial to determine the appropriate management and precautions needed to protect the newborn. Choices A, B, and D are not as pertinent in this situation and do not directly address the potential risk of neonatal transmission of HSV-2.
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