Nursing Elites

1. A public health nurse is developing a list of interventions to address the 3 core functions of public health. What interventions should the nurse include as a part of the assurance function?

• A. Collect data on health trends in the community.
• B. Organize an immunization clinic for at-risk members of the community.
• C. Develop policies to address health disparities.
• D. Conduct research on communicable diseases in the area.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Organize an immunization clinic for at-risk members of the community.' The assurance function of public health involves ensuring that essential public health services, like immunizations, are provided to meet public health goals. Choice A, collecting data on health trends, is more aligned with the assessment function of public health. Choice C, developing policies to address health disparities, pertains to the policy development function. Choice D, conducting research on communicable diseases, is related to the research function rather than the assurance function.

2. A client at risk for coronary artery disease seeks advice from a nurse. What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk?

• A. Increase your intake of saturated fats.
• B. Exercise for 150 minutes per week.
• C. Take iron supplements daily.
• D. Limit fruits and vegetables in your diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease is to exercise for at least 150 minutes per week. Regular exercise is crucial in maintaining cardiovascular health and reducing the chances of developing heart disease. Increasing intake of saturated fats (Choice A) is counterproductive as it can raise cholesterol levels and contribute to arterial plaque formation. Taking iron supplements daily (Choice C) is not directly related to reducing the risk of coronary artery disease. Limiting fruits and vegetables in the diet (Choice D) is also not advisable, as they are essential components of a heart-healthy diet due to their high fiber and nutrient content.

3. A nurse is providing education on the use of aspirin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can increase the risk of bleeding
• B. It is safe to give to children
• C. It should be taken on an empty stomach
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can increase the risk of bleeding.' Aspirin is known to have antiplatelet effects and can increase the risk of bleeding, especially if taken in high doses or for prolonged periods. Choice B is incorrect because aspirin is not safe for children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome. Choice C is incorrect because aspirin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as gastrointestinal bleeding, ulcers, or allergic reactions.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of long-term disease management?

• A. Postprandial blood glucose
• B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
• C. Glucose tolerance test
• D. Fasting blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). The glycosylated hemoglobin test measures average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing an indication of long-term glycemic control in clients with diabetes. Choice A, postprandial blood glucose, reflects blood sugar levels after a meal and does not provide a long-term view. Choice C, glucose tolerance test, evaluates the body's ability to process sugar but does not offer a continuous assessment like the HbA1c test. Choice D, fasting blood glucose, measures blood sugar levels after a period of fasting, which is more indicative of immediate glycemic status rather than long-term management.

5. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• C. Oxybutynin
• D. Nitrofurantoin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.

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