a nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has chronic kidney disease which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have impaired ability to activate vitamin D, leading to decreased production of calcitriol. Calcitriol is essential for calcium absorption in the intestines. Therefore, hypocalcemia is a common finding in chronic kidney disease. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Low potassium and low magnesium are possible electrolyte imbalances in chronic kidney disease, but they are not as directly related to the impaired activation of vitamin D as hypocalcemia.

2. A client wearing an arm cast reports numb fingers. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's circulation. Numbness in the fingers may indicate compromised circulation or nerve damage. By assessing the circulation first, the nurse can ensure that the cast is not too tight, which could be cutting off blood flow. Option A is incorrect because placing the arm in a dependent position may worsen circulation issues. Option B is incorrect as administering pain medication does not address the underlying cause of numbness. Option D is incorrect as applying a warm compress could mask circulation issues and is not the priority in this situation.

3. A nurse manager is teaching a group of employees about QSEN. What statement by an employee should the nurse manager identify as quality improvement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. QSEN focuses on quality improvement in healthcare. Tracking how soon patients are discharged after different types of surgeries helps in evaluating the quality of care provided and identifying areas for improvement. Choices A and B focus on monitoring outcomes but do not directly relate to quality improvement initiatives. Choice D is more about a routine assessment before discharge and does not involve a quality improvement process.

4. To reduce the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), how should the parents position the newborn?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Supine position. Placing the newborn on their back (supine position) is the safest sleeping position to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position helps prevent airway obstruction, which can occur when infants are placed on their stomach (prone position), side (side-lying position), or in a semi-upright position (semi-Fowler's position). The prone position (choice A) is associated with an increased risk of SIDS, making it an unsafe choice. Side-lying position (choice C) and semi-Fowler's position (choice D) also pose risks of airway compromise and are not recommended for sleep positioning to prevent SIDS. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect in this context.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory values for a client who reports fatigue and cold intolerance. The client has an increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level and a decreased total T3 and T4 level. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client’s symptoms and lab results indicate hypothyroidism, and levothyroxine is the standard treatment to replace the deficient thyroid hormones. Methimazole and propylthiouracil are used to treat hyperthyroidism by decreasing the production of thyroid hormones. Somatropin is a growth hormone used in conditions of growth hormone deficiency, not for hypothyroidism.

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