a nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has chronic kidney disease which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have impaired ability to activate vitamin D, leading to decreased production of calcitriol. Calcitriol is essential for calcium absorption in the intestines. Therefore, hypocalcemia is a common finding in chronic kidney disease. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Low potassium and low magnesium are possible electrolyte imbalances in chronic kidney disease, but they are not as directly related to the impaired activation of vitamin D as hypocalcemia.

2. A client with a cystocele is encouraged to exercise to strengthen pelvic floor muscles and prevent pelvic organ prolapse. What exercise will the client need to perform?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The client with a cystocele should perform Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, reducing the risk of pelvic organ prolapse and stress urinary incontinence. Kegel exercises specifically target the muscles that support the pelvic organs. Isometric exercises focus on static muscle contractions and may not be as effective as Kegel exercises for strengthening the pelvic floor. Circumduction exercises involve circular movements at joints and are not specific to pelvic floor muscle strengthening. Uterine extension exercises do not directly target the pelvic floor muscles and are not indicated for cystocele management.

3. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

4. A healthcare professional is teaching a client about reducing the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which factor increases the risk of UTI?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using perfumed toilet paper can irritate the urinary tract and increase the risk of UTI, so it should be avoided. Wearing underwear with a cotton crotch (Choice A) is a preventive measure as cotton allows for better air circulation and reduces moisture, lowering the risk of UTIs. Wiping from front to back (Choice B) helps prevent the introduction of bacteria from the anal region to the urinary tract. Urinating after intercourse (Choice D) can help flush out bacteria introduced during sexual activity, thereby reducing the risk of UTIs.

5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn who has hyperbilirubinemia and a prescription for phototherapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the newborn every 2 to 3 hours during phototherapy is important to expose all areas of the skin to light and facilitate the breakdown of bilirubin. Checking the newborn's temperature is important, but it should be done more frequently, such as every 4 hours, to monitor for any signs of overheating or hypothermia. Applying moisturizing lotion is not indicated during phototherapy as it may interfere with the treatment. Giving glucose water is not necessary for the management of hyperbilirubinemia.

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