ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Low potassium
- D. Low magnesium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have impaired ability to activate vitamin D, leading to decreased production of calcitriol. Calcitriol is essential for calcium absorption in the intestines. Therefore, hypocalcemia is a common finding in chronic kidney disease. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Low potassium and low magnesium are possible electrolyte imbalances in chronic kidney disease, but they are not as directly related to the impaired activation of vitamin D as hypocalcemia.
2. A nurse in an emergency department is serving on a committee that is reviewing the facility protocol for disaster readiness. The nurse should recommend that the protocol include which of the following as a clinical manifestation of smallpox?
- A. Bloody diarrhea
- B. Ptosis of the eyelids
- C. Descending paralysis
- D. Rash in the mouth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Rash in the mouth.' Smallpox presents with a distinctive rash that typically begins in the mouth and spreads to the rest of the body, developing into pustules. This rash is a key clinical manifestation of smallpox. This infectious disease is characterized by the rash, fever, and other systemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not associated with smallpox. Bloody diarrhea, ptosis of the eyelids, and descending paralysis are not typical clinical manifestations of smallpox.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client with a sealed radiation implant. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Remove dirty linens after double-bagging them
- B. Wear a dosimeter badge in the client’s room
- C. Limit visitors to 1 hour per day
- D. Ensure family remains 3 feet away from the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should wear a dosimeter badge to monitor radiation exposure when caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medication class, benzodiazepines. The nurse would use caution when administering benzodiazepines to which of the clients below?
- A. A client with glaucoma
- B. A client with renal failure
- C. A client with hypertension
- D. A client with insomnia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Benzodiazepines can increase intraocular pressure, which is why they must be used cautiously in patients with glaucoma. In clients with this condition, benzodiazepines can potentially worsen symptoms and lead to further complications involving the eyes. Therefore, administering benzodiazepines to a client with glaucoma should be done with caution. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindicated with benzodiazepines, making them less likely to cause harm compared to administering to a client with glaucoma.
5. To reduce the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), how should the parents position the newborn?
- A. Prone position
- B. Supine position
- C. Side-lying position
- D. Semi-Fowler's position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Supine position. Placing the newborn on their back (supine position) is the safest sleeping position to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position helps prevent airway obstruction, which can occur when infants are placed on their stomach (prone position), side (side-lying position), or in a semi-upright position (semi-Fowler's position). The prone position (choice A) is associated with an increased risk of SIDS, making it an unsafe choice. Side-lying position (choice C) and semi-Fowler's position (choice D) also pose risks of airway compromise and are not recommended for sleep positioning to prevent SIDS. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect in this context.
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