ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Low potassium
- D. Low magnesium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have impaired ability to activate vitamin D, leading to decreased production of calcitriol. Calcitriol is essential for calcium absorption in the intestines. Therefore, hypocalcemia is a common finding in chronic kidney disease. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Low potassium and low magnesium are possible electrolyte imbalances in chronic kidney disease, but they are not as directly related to the impaired activation of vitamin D as hypocalcemia.
2. When a nurse is interviewing a client who is requesting oral contraceptives, which finding in the client’s history is a contraindication to combined oral contraceptives?
- A. Thyroid disease
- B. Allergy to penicillin
- C. Impaired liver function
- D. Abnormal blood glucose levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired liver function. Impaired liver function is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives because they are metabolized in the liver. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combined oral contraceptives.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?
- A. Table salt
- B. Egg yolks
- C. White wine
- D. Oranges
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, so clients should consume potassium-rich foods like oranges to prevent hypokalemia. Oranges are a good source of potassium. Table salt, egg yolks, and white wine do not provide significant amounts of potassium and are not beneficial for a client taking furosemide.
4. A nurse is admitting a client who has meningococcal meningitis. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Initiate droplet precautions
- B. Start intravenous antibiotics
- C. Perform a complete assessment
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The first priority when admitting a client with meningococcal meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. This is essential to prevent the transmission of the infection to others, as meningococcal meningitis is highly contagious through respiratory droplets. Starting intravenous antibiotics or performing a complete assessment can follow, but the immediate concern is to implement infection control measures. Notifying the healthcare provider should also be done but is not the first action to take in this situation.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Call the provider if the respiratory rate is less than 18/min
- B. Administer a 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour
- C. Administer enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily
- D. Call the provider if the client’s pulse rate is less than 80/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension and heart failure. It helps reduce the workload on the heart and prevent fluid retention. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A focuses on a respiratory rate, which is not specific to heart failure management. Option B suggests administering a large IV bolus of fluid, which can worsen heart failure by increasing fluid volume. Option D addresses the pulse rate, which is not a typical parameter to monitor for heart failure specifically.
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