Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client with cholecystitis. Which type of diet should the healthcare provider recommend?

• A. High-fiber, low-fat diet
• B. Low-fiber, high-protein diet
• C. Low-fat, low-cholesterol diet
• D. High-protein, high-fat diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cholecystitis, a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet is recommended to manage symptoms and reduce inflammation by reducing the workload on the gallbladder. This diet helps prevent gallbladder attacks and complications.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous (IV) metoprolol (Lopressor) to a client. The client's apical pulse is 58 beats/minute. What action should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
• B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Give half the prescribed dose and recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.
• D. Administer the medication and then recheck the pulse in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, with the client's apical pulse being 58 beats/minute, holding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider is the correct action. A low pulse rate may indicate bradycardia and may necessitate dose adjustment or further evaluation by the healthcare provider to prevent potential complications.

3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Weight loss
• C. Hyperactivity
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperglycemia. Risperidone (Risperdal) can lead to metabolic side effects, such as hyperglycemia, which requires monitoring. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because risperidone is not typically associated with hypertension. Choice B, Weight loss, is less common with risperidone use as it can lead to weight gain. Choice C, Hyperactivity, is not a common side effect of risperidone; instead, it is more known for sedative effects.

4. A client with myelogenous leukemia is receiving an autologous bone marrow transplantation (BMT). What is the priority intervention that the nurse should implement when the bone marrow is repopulating?

• A. Administer sargramostim (Leukine, Prokine).
• B. Infuse PRBC and platelet transfusions.
• C. Give parenteral prophylactic antibiotics.
• D. Maintain a protective isolation environment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Maintaining a protective isolation environment is crucial during the repopulation of bone marrow post-transplant to reduce the risk of infections. The client's immune system is compromised during this period, making them highly susceptible to infections. By implementing protective isolation measures, the nurse can help prevent exposure to pathogens, safeguarding the client's health and supporting the success of the transplantation.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. INR of 2.5.
• B. PTT of 45 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for clients receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent thromboembolism. It is essential to monitor INR levels regularly when on warfarin therapy to ensure that the blood's ability to clot is within the desired range to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding.

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