ATI LPN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client with cholecystitis. Which type of diet should the healthcare provider recommend?
- A. High-fiber, low-fat diet
- B. Low-fiber, high-protein diet
- C. Low-fat, low-cholesterol diet
- D. High-protein, high-fat diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cholecystitis, a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet is recommended to manage symptoms and reduce inflammation by reducing the workload on the gallbladder. This diet helps prevent gallbladder attacks and complications.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication before bedtime.
- B. Report any weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a day.
- C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- D. Limit your fluid intake to less than 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In heart failure, fluid retention is a concern. Furosemide helps manage this by promoting diuresis. Instructing the client to report weight gain exceeding 2 pounds in a day is crucial as it can indicate fluid accumulation, prompting timely intervention to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and complications.
3. A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. When should the patient take this medication for optimal effectiveness?
- A. With meals
- B. At bedtime
- C. Before meals
- D. After meals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is best taken before meals for optimal effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and promoting ulcer healing. Taking it before meals allows the medication to act on the proton pumps before food intake triggers acid production, thereby maximizing its therapeutic benefits. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals, at bedtime, or after meals may not align with its mechanism of action, potentially reducing its effectiveness in managing peptic ulcer disease.
4. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Stimulate white blood cell production
- B. Increase platelet count
- C. Promote red blood cell production
- D. Enhance clotting factor production
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Erythropoietin primarily stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, which helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues. In chronic kidney disease, patients often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production by the kidneys. By administering exogenous erythropoietin, the deficient hormone is replaced, leading to an increase in red blood cell production and subsequently improving the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
5. The client has just been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Hypertension and hyperglycemia.
- B. Hyperpigmentation and hypotension.
- C. Exophthalmos and tachycardia.
- D. Weight gain and fluid retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hyperpigmentation and hypotension are classic clinical manifestations of Addison's disease due to decreased cortisol production. Hyperpigmentation occurs due to elevated levels of ACTH, leading to increased melanin synthesis. Hypotension results from aldosterone deficiency, causing sodium loss and volume depletion.
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