a nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with cholecystitis which type of diet should the nurse recommend
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client with cholecystitis. Which type of diet should the healthcare provider recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cholecystitis, a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet is recommended to manage symptoms and reduce inflammation by reducing the workload on the gallbladder. This diet helps prevent gallbladder attacks and complications.

2. A patient who is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer develops thrombocytopenia. What should the nurse include in the care plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. To minimize this risk, patients with thrombocytopenia should avoid activities that can cause injury or bleeding, such as intramuscular injections. Encouraging light exercise can be beneficial, as it promotes circulation without increasing the risk of trauma. However, avoiding intramuscular injections is crucial to prevent bleeding episodes. Aspirin should be avoided as it can further impair platelet function, exacerbating the condition. Using a soft toothbrush for oral care is recommended to prevent gum bleeding in patients with thrombocytopenia.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Both Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are classic signs of meningeal irritation, commonly associated with meningitis. Brudzinski's sign is positive when flexing the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hips and knees due to irritation of the meninges. Kernig's sign is positive when there is pain and resistance with knee extension after hip flexion, indicating meningeal irritation or inflammation. The Babinski reflex, mentioned in choice B, is a test used to assess upper motor neuron damage and is not specific to meningitis. Therefore, choices A and C are the correct options as they are indicative of meningeal irritation in a suspected case of meningitis.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging frequent rest periods is essential in managing hyperthyroidism as it helps address the fatigue and hypermetabolic state commonly associated with this condition. Rest is crucial to support the body's recovery and reduce the stress on the thyroid gland. While nutrition is important in managing hyperthyroidism, providing a high-calorie diet is not the priority intervention. Restricting fluid intake is not typically necessary unless there are specific indications such as heart failure. Administering a stool softener is not directly related to managing hyperthyroidism.

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