Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old obese man arrives at a clinic reporting daytime sleepiness, difficulty falling asleep at night, and snoring. The nurse should recognize the manifestations of what health problem?

• A. Adenoiditis
• B. Chronic tonsillitis
• C. Obstructive sleep apnea
• D. Laryngeal cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms described, including daytime sleepiness, difficulty falling asleep at night, and snoring, are classic signs of obstructive sleep apnea. This condition is commonly seen in obese individuals due to the relaxation of throat muscles during sleep, leading to airway obstruction. Adenoiditis and chronic tonsillitis are less likely as they don't typically present with the same symptoms mentioned.

2. A client is on a mechanical ventilator. Which client response indicates that the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride (Tubarine) is effective?

• A. The client's extremities are paralyzed.
• B. The peripheral nerve stimulator causes twitching.
• C. The client clenches fist upon command.
• D. The client's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 14.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tubocurarine chloride is a neuromuscular blocker that works by causing paralysis of skeletal muscles. Therefore, if the client's extremities are paralyzed, it indicates that the medication is effective in achieving the desired muscle relaxation necessary for mechanical ventilation. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest muscle activity, which would not be expected with the administration of a neuromuscular blocker. Choice D is unrelated to the effectiveness of tubocurarine chloride.

3. A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be

• A. Antibiotic therapy with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
• B. Referral for urgent colonoscopy
• C. Referral to a surgeon for immediate hemicolectomy
• D. Barium enema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with diverticulitis without evidence of perforation or abscess formation on CT scan. During acute infections, procedures like barium enema and colonoscopy should be avoided to prevent the risk of perforation. Urgent surgery is not indicated initially. The appropriate next step is to start antibiotic therapy aimed at gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes, such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, which are the initial treatment of choice for diverticulitis.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased heart rate.
• B. Decreased pedal edema.
• C. Elevated blood pressure.
• D. Improved urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with heart failure, decreased pedal edema is a positive indicator of improved cardiac output and reduced fluid retention. Digoxin works by increasing the strength of the heart's contractions, leading to improved circulation and reduced symptoms of heart failure, such as edema. Monitoring for decreased pedal edema is essential to assess the effectiveness of digoxin therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure, and improved urine output are not specific indicators of digoxin's effectiveness in managing heart failure. Instead, the focus should be on improvements related to fluid retention and cardiac function, like decreased pedal edema.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which clinical manifestation should the healthcare provider expect to find?

• A. Hyperpigmentation of the skin.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Moon face and buffalo hump.
• D. Weight loss.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Moon face and buffalo hump. In Cushing's syndrome, excess production of corticosteroids leads to redistribution of fat, particularly in the face (moon face) and between the shoulders (buffalo hump). Hyperpigmentation of the skin is actually associated with Addison's disease, not Cushing's syndrome (choice A). Hypotension is not a typical finding in Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypertension is more commonly seen due to the effects of excess cortisol (choice B). Weight gain, rather than weight loss, is a common symptom of Cushing's syndrome due to the metabolic disturbances caused by excess cortisol (choice D).

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