ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy and has gestational diabetes. Which of the following complications is the fetus at risk for?
- A. Macrosomia
- B. Hydrocephalus
- C. Cleft palate
- D. Spina bifida
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Macrosomia. Gestational diabetes can result in fetal macrosomia, a condition where the baby grows larger than normal due to excess glucose in the mother's blood. This increases the risk of complications during delivery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hydrocephalus is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain. Cleft palate is a congenital condition where there is a split or opening in the roof of the mouth. Spina bifida is a neural tube defect characterized by the incomplete development of the spinal cord or its coverings.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks pregnant and reports leaking fluid. Which of the following tests should the nurse use to confirm that the client's membranes have ruptured?
- A. Nonstress test
- B. Biophysical profile
- C. Fern test
- D. Amniocentesis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the Fern test. The Fern test is specifically used to confirm the rupture of membranes. A sample of vaginal fluid is examined under a microscope, and the presence of a fern-like pattern indicates the presence of amniotic fluid. The Nonstress test (Choice A) is used to monitor fetal heart rate and movement, not to confirm ruptured membranes. The Biophysical profile (Choice B) is a prenatal ultrasound evaluation to assess fetal well-being, not to confirm ruptured membranes. Amniocentesis (Choice D) involves the aspiration of amniotic fluid for various diagnostic purposes, not specifically to confirm ruptured membranes.
3. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of allergic reaction. Which of the following should the nurse look for?
- A. Fever
- B. Rash
- C. Fatigue
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct! When assessing a client for signs of an allergic reaction, a nurse should look for a rash. A rash is a common manifestation of an allergic response, such as contact dermatitis or hives. It is important to recognize and assess rashes promptly as they can indicate an allergic reaction.\nOption A, fever, is not typically a primary sign of an allergic reaction but may occur in severe cases. Option C, fatigue, is a general symptom and not specific to allergic reactions. Option D, increased appetite, is not a common sign of an allergic reaction and is more likely related to other conditions or factors.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer oxytocin IV
- B. Perform fundal massage
- C. Check vital signs
- D. Encourage the client to void
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Performing fundal massage is the priority action to take in this situation. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which can reduce postpartum bleeding. Uterine atony, the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage, can be addressed effectively through fundal massage. Administering oxytocin IV, although important, should come after initiating fundal massage. Checking vital signs is also crucial but not the immediate priority. Encouraging the client to void does not directly address the heavy bleeding and passing of large clots; hence, it is not the priority action.
5. A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. What intervention by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?
- A. Monitor for signs of illness.
- B. Teach students about healthy food choices.
- C. Administer medication to students with chronic conditions.
- D. Monitor immunization compliance.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach students about healthy food choices. Teaching healthy habits like proper nutrition is an example of primary prevention because it aims to prevent disease before it occurs. Choice A, monitoring for signs of illness, is more related to secondary prevention (early detection and treatment). Choice C, administering medication to students with chronic conditions, is a form of tertiary prevention (managing existing conditions to prevent complications). Choice D, monitoring immunization compliance, is also a form of primary prevention but focuses on preventing specific infectious diseases through immunization rather than general health promotion.
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