Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following are contraindications to salicylic acid therapy?

• A. Third trimester of pregnancy
• B. Thrombocytopenia
• C. Coronary artery disease
• D. Adolescents with chickenpox

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Third trimester of pregnancy. Salicylic acid is contraindicated during the third trimester of pregnancy due to the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus. Thrombocytopenia (choice B) is not a contraindication to salicylic acid therapy. Coronary artery disease (choice C) is not a specific contraindication to salicylic acid therapy. However, caution should be exercised in patients with coronary artery disease due to the antiplatelet effects of salicylic acid. Adolescents with chickenpox (choice D) should not be given salicylic acid due to the risk of Reye Syndrome, a rare but serious illness.

2. A nurse in an emergency department completes an assessment on an adolescent client with conduct disorder. The client threatened suicide to a teacher at school. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the assessment?

• A. Tell me about your siblings
• B. Tell me what kind of music you like
• C. Tell me how often you drink alcohol
• D. Tell me about your school schedule

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Tell me how often you drink alcohol.' Alcohol use can exacerbate aggressive behaviors and is relevant for the assessment of suicide risk in adolescents with conduct disorders. Choices A, B, and D are unrelated to the assessment of suicide risk in this scenario and do not provide information that directly impacts the client's risk assessment.

3. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the priority assessment?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Urinary output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Blood pressure is the priority assessment in clients with preeclampsia because hypertension is the primary symptom of the condition. Elevated blood pressure increases the risk of complications such as eclampsia and placental abruption. Assessing the blood pressure helps in monitoring the severity of the preeclampsia and guiding appropriate interventions. While monitoring the client's level of consciousness, deep tendon reflexes, and urinary output are important, they are secondary assessments in the context of preeclampsia.

4. A nurse is performing a vaginal exam on a client who is in active labor. The nurse notes the umbilical cord protruding through the cervix. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer oxytocin to the client via intravenous infusion
• B. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
• C. Prepare for insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter
• D. Assist the client into the knee-chest position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should assist the client into the knee-chest position to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord. This position helps to prevent cord compression and improves fetal oxygenation. Administering oxytocin (Choice A) could worsen the situation by increasing contractions and potentially compressing the umbilical cord. Applying oxygen (Choice B) is not the priority in this emergency situation. Preparing for insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter (Choice C) is not appropriate as the immediate concern is relieving pressure on the umbilical cord.

5. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

• A. 4
• B. 7 (comatose)
• C. 9
• D. 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

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