Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed the aromatase inhibitor anastrozole for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following should the nurse inform the client she may experience?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Muscle and joint pain
• C. Night sweats
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle and joint pain. Muscle and joint pain are common side effects of aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole. These side effects can be managed with analgesics as prescribed by the healthcare provider. Weight gain (choice A) is not typically associated with anastrozole. Night sweats (choice C) are also not commonly reported with this medication. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a common side effect of anastrozole.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a hepatitis B vaccine. Which of the following should the healthcare professional verify?

• A. Client's allergy to eggs
• B. Client's vaccination history
• C. Client's weight
• D. Client's blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client's vaccination history. Before administering the hepatitis B vaccine, it is essential to verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the vaccine. This helps in preventing unnecessary vaccinations and ensures the appropriate timing and dosage. Option A, the client's allergy to eggs, is not directly related to administering the hepatitis B vaccine. Option C, the client's weight, and option D, the client's blood pressure, are not factors that need to be specifically verified before administering the hepatitis B vaccine.

3. A nurse should teach which of the following clients requiring crutches about how to use a three-point gait?

• A. A client who is able to bear full weight on both lower extremities.
• B. A client who has bilateral leg braces due to paralysis of the lower extremities.
• C. A client who has a right femur fracture with no weight bearing on the affected leg.
• D. A client who has bilateral knee replacements with partial weight bearing on both legs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a three-point gait is used when the client can bear full weight on one foot and uses crutches and the uninvolved leg to ambulate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not meet the criteria for using a three-point gait. Choice A states that the client can bear full weight on both lower extremities, which does not require a three-point gait. Choice B mentions bilateral leg braces due to paralysis, which would not involve using a three-point gait. Choice D describes a client with bilateral knee replacements with partial weight bearing, which also does not align with the use of a three-point gait.

4. A nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed hypertension about lifestyle changes. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make?

• A. Limit sodium intake to 3,000 mg per day.
• B. Exercise for at least 30 minutes most days of the week.
• C. Drink no more than two alcoholic drinks per day.
• D. Increase fluid intake to at least 3 liters per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Exercise for at least 30 minutes most days of the week.' Regular exercise, especially aerobic activity, is known to help lower blood pressure and should be included in lifestyle changes for managing hypertension. Choice A is incorrect because the recommended sodium intake for individuals with hypertension is usually lower than 3,000 mg per day. Choice C is incorrect as it is advisable to limit alcohol intake to one drink per day for women and two drinks per day for men. Choice D is incorrect because increasing fluid intake to 3 liters per day may not be necessary and could be harmful in some cases, depending on the individual's health status.

5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
• C. Polyuria
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

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