Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. What should the nurse include in the session?

• A. Rabies, cholera, meningitis
• B. Smallpox, anthrax, botulism
• C. Ebola, hepatitis B, tetanus
• D. Tuberculosis, influenza, measles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smallpox, anthrax, botulism. These are known biological weapons that can be used in mass casualty situations. Rabies, cholera, and meningitis (Choice A) are not typically used as biological weapons. Ebola, hepatitis B, and tetanus (Choice C) are serious diseases but are not commonly associated with biological warfare. Tuberculosis, influenza, and measles (Choice D) are infectious diseases but are not typically used as biological weapons of mass destruction.

2. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause a persistent cough
• B. It is a calcium channel blocker
• C. It is safe during pregnancy
• D. It should be taken with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect associated with its use is a persistent cough. This is important information that the client should be aware of. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is not a calcium channel blocker, it is an ACE inhibitor. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially during the second and third trimesters as it can cause harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril is typically recommended to be taken on an empty stomach, about an hour before meals.

3. A client has been prescribed phenytoin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to prevent toxicity?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Complete blood count
• C. Serum phenytoin levels
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Serum phenytoin levels should be regularly monitored to prevent toxicity because the therapeutic range is narrow. Monitoring blood pressure (choice A), complete blood count (choice B), and liver function tests (choice D) are not directly related to preventing phenytoin toxicity.

4. A nurse is reviewing the ABG results of a client with chronic emphysema. Which result suggests the need for further treatment?

• A. PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg
• B. PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg
• C. HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L
• D. pH level of 7.37

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg is elevated, indicating carbon dioxide retention, a common complication of emphysema that necessitates intervention. Elevated PaCO2 can lead to respiratory acidosis, reflecting inadequate ventilation. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges. A PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg is acceptable. An HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L falls within the normal range, suggesting adequate compensation. A pH level of 7.37 is also within the normal range, indicating the client's acid-base balance is maintained.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes who is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first?

• A. Administer insulin
• B. Give the client a carbohydrate snack
• C. Call for assistance
• D. Monitor blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to give the client a carbohydrate snack. When a client is experiencing hypoglycemia, the priority intervention is to raise their blood glucose levels quickly. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower the blood glucose levels and is contra-indicated in this situation. Calling for assistance (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority over addressing the low blood sugar. Monitoring blood glucose (Choice D) is important but not the initial action needed to raise blood glucose levels rapidly.

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