ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. What should the nurse include in the session?
- A. Rabies, cholera, meningitis
- B. Smallpox, anthrax, botulism
- C. Ebola, hepatitis B, tetanus
- D. Tuberculosis, influenza, measles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smallpox, anthrax, botulism. These are known biological weapons that can be used in mass casualty situations. Rabies, cholera, and meningitis (Choice A) are not typically used as biological weapons. Ebola, hepatitis B, and tetanus (Choice C) are serious diseases but are not commonly associated with biological warfare. Tuberculosis, influenza, and measles (Choice D) are infectious diseases but are not typically used as biological weapons of mass destruction.
2. A client at risk for coronary artery disease seeks advice from a nurse. What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk?
- A. Increase your intake of saturated fats.
- B. Exercise for 150 minutes per week.
- C. Take iron supplements daily.
- D. Limit fruits and vegetables in your diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease is to exercise for at least 150 minutes per week. Regular exercise is crucial in maintaining cardiovascular health and reducing the chances of developing heart disease. Increasing intake of saturated fats (Choice A) is counterproductive as it can raise cholesterol levels and contribute to arterial plaque formation. Taking iron supplements daily (Choice C) is not directly related to reducing the risk of coronary artery disease. Limiting fruits and vegetables in the diet (Choice D) is also not advisable, as they are essential components of a heart-healthy diet due to their high fiber and nutrient content.
3. A client with a permanent spinal cord injury is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?
- A. “I would like to play wheelchair basketball. When I get stronger, I think I’ll look for a league.”
- B. “I’m glad I’ll only be in this wheelchair temporarily. I can’t wait to get back to running.”
- C. “I’m so upset that this happened to me. What did I do to deserve this, and why am I not getting better?”
- D. “I feel like I’ll never be able to do anything that I want to again. All I am is a burden to my family.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer. This statement demonstrates effective coping as the client is showing acceptance of their disability and planning for the future with realistic goals. Choice B reflects denial of the permanent disability by stating that they will only be in a wheelchair temporarily. Choice C shows distress and a lack of acceptance by questioning why the injury happened and why they are not improving. Choice D indicates feelings of hopelessness and being a burden, which are not signs of effective coping.
4. A nurse working at the clinic is teaching a group of clients who are pregnant on the use of nonpharmacological pain management. Which of the following is an appropriate description of the use of hypnosis during labor?
- A. Hypnosis focuses on biofeedback as a relaxation technique
- B. Hypnosis promotes increased control of pain perception during contractions
- C. Hypnosis uses therapeutic touch to reduce anxiety during labor
- D. Hypnosis provides instruction to minimize pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hypnosis during labor helps the client gain increased control over her perception of pain, allowing for better pain management during contractions. Choice A is incorrect because hypnosis and biofeedback are distinct techniques. Choice C is incorrect as therapeutic touch and hypnosis are different modalities. Choice D is incorrect as hypnosis does not simply provide instruction to minimize pain, but rather helps the individual control their perception of pain.
5. A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. History of diuretic use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.
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