Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the guidelines for reporting nationally notifiable infectious diseases. What disease should the nurse report to the CDC?

• A. Measles
• B. Hepatitis A
• C. Lyme disease
• D. Zika

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Lyme disease. Lyme disease must be reported to the CDC as it is a nationally notifiable infectious disease. It is spread by ticks and can lead to significant health issues if not monitored. Measles, Hepatitis A, and Zika are also important infectious diseases, but in this case, Lyme disease is the appropriate choice based on the information provided.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for ferrous sulfate. What instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid strawberries and citrus fruits
• B. Take with fluids other than coffee or tea
• C. Take on a full stomach
• D. Double the dose if you miss a dose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with fluids other than coffee or tea. Coffee and tea can hinder iron absorption, so it's important to take the medication with other types of fluids. Choice A is incorrect because strawberries and citrus fruits are sources of vitamin C, which actually enhance iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Choice D is incorrect as doubling the dose of ferrous sulfate can lead to an overdose and severe side effects.

3. A healthcare professional is teaching a client about reducing the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which factor increases the risk of UTI?

• A. Wearing underwear with a cotton crotch
• B. Wiping from front to back
• C. Using perfumed toilet paper
• D. Urinating after intercourse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using perfumed toilet paper can irritate the urinary tract and increase the risk of UTI, so it should be avoided. Wearing underwear with a cotton crotch (Choice A) is a preventive measure as cotton allows for better air circulation and reduces moisture, lowering the risk of UTIs. Wiping from front to back (Choice B) helps prevent the introduction of bacteria from the anal region to the urinary tract. Urinating after intercourse (Choice D) can help flush out bacteria introduced during sexual activity, thereby reducing the risk of UTIs.

4. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of gabapentin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause drowsiness
• B. It has no side effects
• C. It is a pain reliever
• D. It can be taken with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause drowsiness.' Gabapentin is known to cause drowsiness, and clients should be warned about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although gabapentin is used for pain management, it is not classified as a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, and specific instructions regarding food intake should be provided based on individual needs.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions from the provider should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Call the provider if the client’s respiratory rate is less than 18/min
• B. Administer 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour
• C. Administer enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily
• D. Call the provider if the client’s pulse rate is less than 80/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for clients with congestive heart failure to help reduce blood pressure and fluid overload. Option A is incorrect as in congestive heart failure, a lower respiratory rate could be a sign of worsening condition and needs immediate attention rather than waiting to call the provider. Option B is incorrect as administering a large IV bolus of sodium chloride could exacerbate fluid overload in a client with heart failure. Option D is incorrect as a pulse rate lower than 80/min may not necessarily indicate a problem in a client with congestive heart failure.

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