Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for oxcarbazepine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Serum sodium levels
• C. Blood glucose
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum sodium levels. Oxcarbazepine can lead to hyponatremia, making it crucial to monitor serum sodium levels. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Blood glucose (choice C) monitoring is more relevant in medications affecting blood sugar levels. Heart rate (choice D) is not directly impacted by oxcarbazepine.

2. When teaching a client about the use of trazodone, what should be included?

• A. It can cause sedation
• B. It is a stimulant
• C. It has no side effects
• D. It should be taken with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Trazodone can cause sedation, so clients should be cautioned about activities requiring alertness, like driving. Choice B is incorrect because trazodone is not a stimulant; it is actually a sedating antidepressant. Choice C is incorrect as all medications have potential side effects. Choice D is not specifically indicated for trazodone; the client should follow the prescribing healthcare provider's instructions regarding food intake.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 8 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports passing large clots and heavy bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Massage the fundus
• B. Administer methylergonovine
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heavy bleeding and the passage of large clots after childbirth can indicate uterine atony. The nurse should first attempt to massage the fundus to stimulate uterine contractions and control the bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus to contract and may help prevent further bleeding. Administering methylergonovine (Choice B) is not the initial intervention for uterine atony. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the bleeding. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after attempting initial interventions like fundal massage.

4. A nurse is assisting with meal planning for a client who has been prescribed a mechanical soft diet. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods?

• A. Applesauce
• B. Mashed potatoes
• C. Orange slices
• D. Soft bread

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Orange slices. Orange slices contain membranes that are difficult to swallow, which can pose a risk to clients on a mechanical soft diet. This type of diet is designed for individuals who have difficulty chewing or swallowing. Choices A, B, and D are suitable for a mechanical soft diet as they are soft in texture and easy to chew and swallow.

5. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Hypertension
• C. Pruritus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

Similar Questions