a nurse is positioning a client who is scheduled for a lumbar puncture the nurse should assist the client into which of the following positions
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. The nurse should assist the client into which of the following positions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct position for a lumbar puncture is the lateral recumbent position. This position allows the spine to curve naturally, widening the spaces between the vertebrae, making it easier and safer to perform the procedure. Supine with head elevated (Choice A) would not provide the proper positioning for a lumbar puncture as it does not allow for proper access to the lumbar area. Prone with arms at sides (Choice C) would not be suitable as it would not facilitate the procedure. Sitting with back rounded (Choice D) is also incorrect as it does not allow for the proper alignment of the spine needed for a lumbar puncture.

2. A nurse assisting with a childbirth class is discussing nonpharmacological strategies used during labor. Which of the following statements by a client indicates an understanding of cutaneous stimulation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Apply counter-pressure for back pain.' Counter-pressure involves applying pressure to the lower back to alleviate pain during labor. This technique is a form of cutaneous stimulation, which can help with pain relief. Choice B, deep breathing exercises, is a form of relaxation technique and does not directly involve cutaneous stimulation. Choice C, visualizing the baby's head, is a mental imagery technique and does not involve physical stimulation of the skin. Choice D, massage therapy, is a tactile stimulation technique but is not specifically focused on back pain relief through counter-pressure.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

4. A nurse is performing vision testing for a client following a head injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a problem with pupil accommodation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pupil accommodation problems are indicated by the lack of change in size when shifting gaze from far to near. The correct answer is D because in pupil accommodation, the pupils should constrict when shifting gaze from far to near in order to adjust for near vision. Choices A and B describe normal responses of pupil constriction when shifting gaze, which do not indicate a problem. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a normal response of pupil size change when shifting gaze from near to far.

5. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has Tourette syndrome. The client reports taking haloperidol 0.5 mL orally three times a day at home. Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should question the dosage of haloperidol as it is typically administered in milligrams (mg) and not milliliters (mL). The dosage should be expressed in a standardized unit for accuracy and to prevent medication errors. Frequency, timing of doses, and route are also important components of a prescription, but in this case, the nurse should focus on the unusual dosage form.

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