Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. The nurse should assist the client into which of the following positions?

• A. Supine with head elevated
• B. Lateral recumbent
• C. Prone with arms at sides
• D. Sitting with back rounded

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct position for a lumbar puncture is the lateral recumbent position. This position allows the spine to curve naturally, widening the spaces between the vertebrae, making it easier and safer to perform the procedure. Supine with head elevated (Choice A) would not provide the proper positioning for a lumbar puncture as it does not allow for proper access to the lumbar area. Prone with arms at sides (Choice C) would not be suitable as it would not facilitate the procedure. Sitting with back rounded (Choice D) is also incorrect as it does not allow for the proper alignment of the spine needed for a lumbar puncture.

2. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who is at risk of developing pressure injuries. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Place the client in a prone position
• B. Place the client in a 30-degree lateral position
• C. Encourage the client to reposition every 4 hours
• D. Place the client in a high Fowler's position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Place the client in a 30-degree lateral position. Positioning the client laterally reduces pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and helping prevent pressure injuries. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) increases pressure on the bony prominences, raising the risk of pressure injuries. Similarly, placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) can also increase pressure on certain areas. While encouraging the client to reposition every 4 hours (choice C) is important, the specific lateral positioning is more beneficial in preventing pressure injuries.

3. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Fever
• B. Ataxia
• C. Nystagmus
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ataxia, which refers to difficulty with coordination, is a common symptom seen in individuals with multiple sclerosis. Nystagmus, the involuntary eye movement, can also occur in multiple sclerosis but is not as common as ataxia. Fatigue is a common symptom in multiple sclerosis, but ataxia is more specific. Fever is not a typical finding associated with multiple sclerosis.

4. A nurse in a long-term care facility is observing a newly licensed nurse who is providing tracheostomy care for a client. The nurse identifies proper performance of the procedure when the newly licensed nurse selects which of the following solutions to clean the inner cannula?

• A. Normal saline
• B. Hydrogen peroxide
• C. Iodine
• D. Alcohol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrogen peroxide. Hydrogen peroxide is commonly used to clean tracheostomy cannulas to prevent infection. Normal saline (choice A) is used for wound irrigation but not for cleaning inner cannulas of tracheostomy tubes. Iodine (choice C) and alcohol (choice D) are not recommended for cleaning tracheostomy cannulas as they can be too harsh and irritating to the delicate tissues of the airway.

5. During the admission of a client with a latex allergy, which of the following supplies has the potential to contain latex?

• A. Urinary catheters
• B. Indwelling catheters
• C. Sterile gloves
• D. Sterile gowns

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urinary catheters. Urinary catheters often contain latex, which can trigger an allergic reaction in clients with latex allergy. Indwelling catheters (choice B), sterile gloves (choice C), and sterile gowns (choice D) can be latex-free alternatives. However, urinary catheters are more commonly made with latex, making them a higher risk for clients with latex allergies.

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