Nursing Elites

1. What are the risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes?

• A. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet
• B. Age, gender, and family history
• C. Smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension
• D. Frequent exercise and low-carbohydrate diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet are established risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes. Obesity puts extra pressure on the body's ability to properly control blood sugar levels. A sedentary lifestyle contributes to weight gain and insulin resistance. Poor diet, especially one high in processed foods and sugary beverages, can also increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because age, gender, family history, smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension can impact overall health but are not the primary risk factors for Type 2 diabetes.

2. A client who is to undergo an exercise stress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should eat a large meal 2 hours before the test
• B. I should avoid drinking water before the test
• C. I should stop taking my blood pressure medication
• D. I should report any chest pain during the test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I should report any chest pain during the test.' This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because reporting chest pain during an exercise stress test is crucial as it may signify cardiac distress. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Eating a large meal 2 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the results. Avoiding drinking water before the test is also not advisable as staying hydrated is important. Stopping blood pressure medication without medical advice can be dangerous, especially before a stress test.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat a light snack before bedtime.
• B. Stay in bed at least 1 hr if unable to fall asleep.
• C. Take a 1 hr nap during the day.
• D. Perform exercises prior to bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the older adult client to eat a light snack before bedtime. This is beneficial as it helps prevent hunger, which can disrupt sleep. Choice B is incorrect as staying in bed for a prolonged time if unable to fall asleep can lead to frustration and worsen insomnia. Choice C is incorrect as taking a 1-hour nap during the day can interfere with the ability to fall asleep at night. Choice D is incorrect as performing exercises prior to bedtime can increase alertness and make it harder to fall asleep.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking enalapril for hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg
• B. Swelling in the legs
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Heart rate of 72 beats per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Enalapril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This adverse reaction is due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and cough. The nurse should report this symptom to the provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices A, B, and D are not directly associated with enalapril use. While a blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg is elevated and should be monitored, it is not a direct side effect of enalapril. Swelling in the legs and a heart rate of 72 beats per minute are also not typically related to enalapril use and should be assessed but are not the priority findings to report in this scenario.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
• C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
• D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.

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