a nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers which of the following interventions should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for pressure ulcers is to turn and reposition the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and reducing the risk of pressure ulcer development. Applying heat to the affected area (Choice A) can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Placing the client in a prone position (Choice B) can also increase pressure on certain areas, leading to pressure ulcers. Providing the client with a bedpan every 4 hours (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing pressure ulcers.

2. A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a history of hepatitis C asks the nurse if she will be able to breastfeed. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'You may breastfeed unless your nipples are cracked or bleeding.' In the case of hepatitis C, breastfeeding is generally safe unless the mother's nipples are cracked or bleeding, which could increase the risk of transmission to the baby. Choice B is incorrect as using a breast pump is not a mandatory requirement for breastfeeding with hepatitis C. Choice C is incorrect as a nipple shield is not necessary in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because the baby developing antibodies does not impact the decision to breastfeed in the context of hepatitis C.

3. A client undergoing chemotherapy for cancer is being taught about potential adverse effects of the treatment. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because hair loss is a common adverse effect of chemotherapy. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding drinking water before meals, experiencing an increase in appetite, or expecting appetite to increase are not related to the potential adverse effects of chemotherapy.

4. A client with a tracheostomy is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress, the immediate priority for the nurse is to suction the tracheostomy. This action helps clear the airway of secretions and ensures that the client can breathe effectively. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be necessary but addressing the airway obstruction is more critical. Notifying the physician immediately is important but may cause a delay in addressing the immediate need for airway clearance. Administering a bronchodilator may help with bronchospasm but should not take precedence over ensuring a clear airway in a client with respiratory distress.

5. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with hypokalemia is to administer potassium supplements and monitor the ECG. Potassium supplements help correct the low potassium levels in the body, while ECG monitoring is essential to detect any cardiac arrhythmias associated with hypokalemia. Choice B is incorrect because a high-sodium diet would worsen hypokalemia by further depleting potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect as it only focuses on monitoring symptoms and providing dietary education, but does not address the immediate need to correct potassium levels. Choice D is also incorrect as administering diuretics would exacerbate hypokalemia by increasing potassium loss.

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