Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply heat to the affected area
• B. Place the client in a prone position
• C. Turn and reposition the client every 2 hours
• D. Provide the client with a bedpan every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for pressure ulcers is to turn and reposition the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and reducing the risk of pressure ulcer development. Applying heat to the affected area (Choice A) can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Placing the client in a prone position (Choice B) can also increase pressure on certain areas, leading to pressure ulcers. Providing the client with a bedpan every 4 hours (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing pressure ulcers.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is concerned about weight gain during pregnancy. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. You should not gain more than 10 lbs
• B. Your weight gain should be the same as for someone without diabetes
• C. Avoid gaining more than 15 lbs
• D. You should gain more weight because of your condition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with type 2 diabetes should aim for the same pregnancy weight gain as those without diabetes. Option A is too restrictive and may not be appropriate for a healthy pregnancy. Option C also imposes a specific limit without considering individual needs. Option D is incorrect as excessive weight gain can lead to complications in pregnancy, especially for individuals with diabetes.

3. A nurse is reviewing the record of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Wandering at night
• B. A serum albumin level of 3.5 g/dL
• C. Urinary incontinence
• D. Restlessness and agitation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restlessness and agitation in clients with dementia could indicate a worsening condition and should be prioritized. While wandering at night and urinary incontinence are common issues in dementia patients, restlessness and agitation can signal acute distress or an unmet need, requiring immediate attention. Monitoring serum albumin levels is important for overall health but would not be the priority when assessing a client with dementia.

4. A client is to start taking furosemide and is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to the client?

• A. Cabbage
• B. Bananas
• C. Carrots
• D. Potatoes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which helps counter the potassium-depleting effects of furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so including potassium-rich foods like bananas in the diet can help maintain a healthy potassium level. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the potassium needs associated with furosemide therapy and are not the most appropriate recommendations in this context.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?

• A. WBC count 2,900 /mm3.
• B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dl.
• C. Hgb 14 g/dl.
• D. Heart rate 58/min.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 2,900/mm3 indicates leukopenia, which is a serious side effect of clozapine and contraindicates its use. Leukopenia is a significant concern with clozapine therapy due to the risk of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Monitoring the WBC count is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. The other options (B, C, and D) are within normal ranges and not contraindications for administering clozapine.

Similar Questions