Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply heat to the affected area
• B. Place the client in a prone position
• C. Turn and reposition the client every 2 hours
• D. Provide the client with a bedpan every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for pressure ulcers is to turn and reposition the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and reducing the risk of pressure ulcer development. Applying heat to the affected area (Choice A) can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Placing the client in a prone position (Choice B) can also increase pressure on certain areas, leading to pressure ulcers. Providing the client with a bedpan every 4 hours (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing pressure ulcers.

2. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent venous thromboembolism?

• A. Instruct the client to perform ankle pumps
• B. Administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed
• C. Maintain the client in a prone position
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate as tolerated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention to prevent venous thromboembolism in a postoperative client following hip replacement is to administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed. Anticoagulants help prevent blood clots from forming. Instructing the client to perform ankle pumps helps prevent blood clots by promoting circulation. Maintaining the client in a prone position can increase the risk of venous stasis and thrombus formation. Encouraging the client to ambulate as tolerated also helps prevent venous thromboembolism by promoting blood flow and preventing stasis.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer insulin
• B. Administer glucagon
• C. Administer 4 oz of orange juice
• D. Administer 1 L of water

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering 4 oz of orange juice is the appropriate action for a client experiencing hypoglycemia due to diabetes mellitus. Orange juice contains simple sugars that can quickly raise blood glucose levels. Insulin (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar, worsening the condition. Glucagon (Choice B) is used in severe hypoglycemia when the client cannot take anything by mouth. Administering 1 L of water (Choice D) is not indicated in hypoglycemia treatment; the priority is to raise blood sugar levels. Therefore, the correct choice is to administer orange juice to address the low blood sugar in this situation.

4. What are the key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?

• A. Hypoglycemia: Sweating, trembling; Hyperglycemia: Frequent urination, thirst
• B. Hypoglycemia: Increased thirst; Hyperglycemia: Sweating, confusion
• C. Hypoglycemia: Increased appetite; Hyperglycemia: Blurred vision
• D. Hypoglycemia: Dizziness; Hyperglycemia: Low blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypoglycemia typically presents with sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia is characterized by frequent urination and thirst. Therefore, the correct key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are that hypoglycemia includes symptoms like sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia involves symptoms such as frequent urination and thirst. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the characteristic symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as stated in the question.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
• B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
• C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
• D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.

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