a nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers which of the following interventions should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for pressure ulcers is to turn and reposition the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and reducing the risk of pressure ulcer development. Applying heat to the affected area (Choice A) can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Placing the client in a prone position (Choice B) can also increase pressure on certain areas, leading to pressure ulcers. Providing the client with a bedpan every 4 hours (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing pressure ulcers.

2. What are the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Systolic heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction, meaning the heart is not pumping effectively. Diastolic heart failure, on the other hand, is characterized by preserved ejection fraction, indicating that the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure.

3. What are the key interventions for managing a patient with asthma?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer bronchodilators and monitor oxygen levels. Asthma management involves using bronchodilators to help open the airways and improve breathing. Monitoring oxygen levels is essential to ensure the patient is getting enough oxygen. Choice B, encouraging deep breathing exercises, can be helpful for some respiratory conditions but is not a key intervention for managing an acute asthma attack. Choice C, providing corticosteroids and monitoring for respiratory distress, is important for long-term asthma management and severe exacerbations but is not the immediate key intervention during an acute attack. Choice D, providing antihistamines and monitoring blood pressure, is not typically indicated for asthma management as asthma is primarily an airway disease, not a histamine-mediated condition.

4. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for surgery in the morning. The nurse learns that the client has decided not to have surgery even though they have already signed the informed consent form. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to report the client's decision to the provider who obtained informed consent. This ensures that the provider is informed of the client's change in decision and can discuss the situation further with the client. Choice A is incorrect as ignoring the client's decision is not appropriate and goes against the principles of patient autonomy. Choice C is incorrect because involving the family in convincing the client can be coercive and may not respect the client's autonomy. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should not re-sign the informed consent form without the client's consent and a discussion with the provider.

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