a nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers which of the following interventions should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for pressure ulcers is to turn and reposition the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and reducing the risk of pressure ulcer development. Applying heat to the affected area (Choice A) can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Placing the client in a prone position (Choice B) can also increase pressure on certain areas, leading to pressure ulcers. Providing the client with a bedpan every 4 hours (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing pressure ulcers.

2. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial to ensure adequate pain control in the immediate postoperative period. Choice A is incorrect because clear liquids are typically initiated gradually and advanced as tolerated but not specifically at 6 hours post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect as cromolyn nebulizer solution is not indicated for postoperative pain management in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as applying a warm compress may not be appropriate for the operative site after appendicitis surgery and can potentially increase the risk of infection.

3. When collecting data from a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct manifestation to expect when collecting data from a client with PTSD is hypervigilance. Hypervigilance refers to increased alertness, which is a common symptom of PTSD. This heightened state of awareness is characterized by an exaggerated startle response, being easily startled, and constantly scanning the environment for potential threats. Amnesia (choice A) is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; it is more commonly associated with dissociative disorders. Hallucinations (choice C) involve perceiving things that are not present and are not typically a hallmark symptom of PTSD. Severe agitation (choice D) may occur in individuals with PTSD, but hypervigilance is a more specific and common manifestation associated with this disorder.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Abdominal cramping is a common manifestation of hyponatremia, as the sodium imbalance affects muscle function. Numbness of the extremities (Choice A) is more commonly associated with electrolyte imbalances such as hypocalcemia. Bradycardia (Choice C) is not typically a direct manifestation of hyponatremia. Positive Chvostek's sign (Choice D) is related to hypocalcemia, not hyponatremia.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and is approaching death. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of impending death?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cold extremities are a critical sign of impending death as they indicate decreased circulation, leading to poor perfusion to the extremities. This phenomenon occurs as the body redirects blood flow to vital organs, preparing for the end of life. Hypertension and tachycardia are less likely to be seen in the terminal phase and are usually associated with other conditions like shock or sepsis. Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, may occur in various situations but is not a specific indicator of impending death in this context.

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