ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. What are the nursing interventions for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
- A. Administer glucose or dextrose and monitor blood sugar levels
- B. Monitor vital signs and provide a high-carbohydrate snack
- C. Monitor for sweating and confusion
- D. Provide insulin and assess for hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Administering glucose or dextrose is a crucial nursing intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia as it helps to quickly raise blood sugar levels. Monitoring blood sugar levels is essential to ensure that the patient's glucose levels normalize. Choice B is incorrect because providing a high-carbohydrate snack may not be sufficient to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in severe hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect because while monitoring for sweating and confusion is important in hypoglycemia, it is not a direct nursing intervention. Choice D is incorrect as providing insulin would lower blood sugar levels further, worsening hypoglycemia.
2. A patient took an overdose of acetaminophen. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer to the patient?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Acetylcysteine
- C. Flumazenil
- D. Activated charcoal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing glutathione, a key component in detoxifying acetaminophen metabolites, thus preventing liver damage. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not acetaminophen. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antidote. Activated charcoal is used to limit absorption in cases of poisoning, but it is not the antidote for acetaminophen overdose.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client is anxious about the procedure.
- B. The client has not eaten for 8 hours.
- C. The client has a reported allergy to shellfish.
- D. The client has a platelet count of 100,000/mm³.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is low and increases the risk of bleeding during the bronchoscopy. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this situation. Anxiety about the procedure is common and can be managed with appropriate interventions. Not eating for 8 hours is a standard pre-procedure requirement to prevent aspiration during sedation. A reported allergy to shellfish is important to note but is not directly related to the risk of complications during a bronchoscopy.
4. A client with a new diagnosis of celiac disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. You should avoid foods that contain gluten.
- B. You should increase your intake of dairy products.
- C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
- D. You should increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should avoid foods that contain gluten.' Gluten is a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye, which can trigger an immune response in individuals with celiac disease. Avoiding gluten-containing foods is crucial to managing the condition and preventing symptoms and complications associated with celiac disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing dairy intake (Choice B) is not necessary for celiac disease management. Avoiding lactose (Choice C) is relevant for individuals with lactose intolerance, not celiac disease. While high-fiber foods (Choice D) are generally beneficial for health, they are not specifically indicated for celiac disease management.
5. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.
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