Nursing Elites

1. A client has hypoglycemia and is conscious. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer glucagon IM
• B. Give the client 4 oz of fruit juice
• C. Provide the client with peanut butter
• D. Give the client 1 L of water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In conscious clients with hypoglycemia, the most appropriate action is to provide a rapidly absorbed carbohydrate source like fruit juice to raise blood glucose levels quickly. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (IM) is usually reserved for unconscious clients or those who are unable to take oral glucose. Providing peanut butter or water would not rapidly address the hypoglycemic state as fruit juice would.

2. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Administer insulin
• B. Administer IV fluids
• C. Monitor blood glucose
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), it is crucial to administer insulin to lower blood sugar levels, administer IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, and monitor blood glucose levels regularly to ensure they are within the target range. Therefore, all of the above options are essential components of the comprehensive treatment plan for DKA. Administering insulin alone may lower blood sugar levels but will not address the fluid and electrolyte imbalances seen in DKA. Similarly, administering IV fluids alone may help with dehydration but will not address the high blood sugar levels or the need for insulin. Monitoring blood glucose alone is not sufficient to treat DKA; it must be accompanied by appropriate interventions to address the underlying causes and complications of the condition.

3. A nurse is working in an acute care mental health facility and is assessing a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. All-or-nothing thinking.
• B. Euphoric mood.
• C. Disorganized speech.
• D. Hypochondriasis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disorganized speech. Disorganized speech is a hallmark symptom of schizophrenia, characterized by impaired thought processes that lead to incoherent, disjointed communication. All-or-nothing thinking (Choice A) is more commonly associated with cognitive distortions seen in conditions like anxiety disorders. Euphoric mood (Choice B) is not a typical finding in schizophrenia, as individuals with this disorder often display a flat or blunted affect. Hypochondriasis (Choice D) involves a preoccupation with having a serious illness and is not a primary symptom of schizophrenia.

4. A client is concerned about extreme fatigue after an acute myocardial infarction. What is the best strategy the nurse can suggest to promote independence in self-care?

• A. Encourage the client to rest and let the healthcare team take over self-care tasks
• B. Instruct the client to gradually resume self-care tasks, with rest periods
• C. Assign assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks for the client
• D. Ask the client's family to assist with self-care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best strategy to promote independence in self-care for a client concerned about extreme fatigue after an acute myocardial infarction is to instruct the client to gradually resume self-care tasks, with rest periods. This approach allows the client to regain independence without overexerting. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to rest completely and letting the healthcare team take over self-care tasks may hinder independence. Choice C is incorrect as assigning assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks does not promote the client's independence. Choice D is not the best option as the primary focus should be on empowering the client to perform self-care tasks independently.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

Similar Questions