Nursing Elites

1. A client in labor requests epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Position the client supine for 30 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• B. Administer 1,000 mL of dextrose 5% in water after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• C. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• D. Ensure the client has been NPO for 4 hours before the placement of the epidural and the first dose of anesthetic solution.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 to 10 minutes following the first dose of anesthetic solution to assess for maternal hypotension. This is crucial to detect and manage potential complications associated with the epidural anesthesia. Positioning the client supine for a prolonged period can lead to hypotension; administering dextrose solution is not a standard practice in epidural anesthesia; ensuring NPO status for 4 hours is not necessary before epidural placement.

2. A parent is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse regarding caring for their newborn after a circumcision. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Apply slight pressure with a sterile gauze pad for mild bleeding.
• B. Inspect the circumcision site every 6 to 8 hours.
• C. Avoid using baby wipes containing alcohol to cleanse the penis with each diaper change.
• D. Clean the circumcision site daily using a warm, wet washcloth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply slight pressure with a sterile gauze pad for mild bleeding. This helps to stop bleeding. If the bleeding persists, the parent should contact the healthcare provider for further guidance. While inspecting the circumcision site is important, checking every 6 to 8 hours might be too frequent and could disrupt healing. Using baby wipes containing alcohol can irritate the sensitive skin, so it is advised to avoid them. Cleaning the circumcision site daily is crucial, but excessive cleaning by removing yellow exudate daily is not necessary unless advised by the healthcare provider.

3. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is caring for a client who presents with severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the healthcare professional that the client has blood in the peritoneum?

• A. Chvostek's sign
• B. Cullen's sign
• C. Chadwick's sign
• D. Goodell's sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cullen's sign, which presents as bruising around the umbilicus, indicates the presence of blood in the peritoneum. This sign is significant in cases of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy as it suggests intraperitoneal bleeding, prompting immediate medical attention. Chvostek's sign is related to facial muscle spasm and is not indicative of peritoneal bleeding. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina during pregnancy, not related to peritoneal bleeding. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix, which is a sign of pregnancy, and not specific to peritoneal bleeding.

4. A client at 42 weeks of gestation is having an ultrasound. For which of the following conditions should the nurse prepare for an amnioinfusion? (Select all that apply)

• A. Oligohydramnios
• B. Hydramnios
• C. Fetal cord compression
• D. Polyhydramnios

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is "Oligohydramnios". Oligohydramnios, which refers to low amniotic fluid volume, may necessitate amnioinfusion to address the deficiency. Fetal cord compression is another indication for amnioinfusion as it can help alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord. Hydramnios or polyhydramnios, conversely, involve an excess of amniotic fluid and do not typically require amnioinfusion. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect in this context.

5. A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed
• B. Awaken during the night to eat a snack
• C. Skip breakfast and eat lunch after nausea has subsided
• D. Eat a large evening meal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting in the morning are common symptoms. Eating crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed can help manage morning nausea by stabilizing blood sugar levels. This simple and easily digestible snack can alleviate symptoms by providing some sustenance to the stomach before fully waking up and moving around. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Waking up during the night to eat a snack may disrupt sleep patterns, skipping breakfast can worsen symptoms by allowing the stomach to remain empty for longer periods, and eating a large evening meal may exacerbate morning nausea due to increased stomach contents.

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