Nursing Elites

1. A client in labor requests epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Position the client supine for 30 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• B. Administer 1,000 mL of dextrose 5% in water after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• C. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• D. Ensure the client has been NPO for 4 hours before the placement of the epidural and the first dose of anesthetic solution.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 to 10 minutes following the first dose of anesthetic solution to assess for maternal hypotension. This is crucial to detect and manage potential complications associated with the epidural anesthesia. Positioning the client supine for a prolonged period can lead to hypotension; administering dextrose solution is not a standard practice in epidural anesthesia; ensuring NPO status for 4 hours is not necessary before epidural placement.

2. A caregiver is being taught about bottle feeding a newborn. Which of the following statements by the caregiver indicates a need for further instruction?

• A. I will keep the baby's head elevated while feeding.
• B. I will allow the baby to burp several times during each feeding.
• C. I will tilt the bottle to prevent air from entering as the baby sucks.
• D. My baby will have soft, formed yellow stools.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tilting the bottle to prevent air from entering as the baby sucks can lead to the baby swallowing air, causing discomfort and potential issues like colic or gas. The correct way to bottle-feed a newborn is by ensuring that the nipple is always filled with milk to avoid air intake, which can lead to problems. Keeping the baby's head elevated while feeding helps prevent choking, allowing the baby to burp several times during each feeding helps release swallowed air, and soft, formed yellow stools indicate a healthy digestion process in newborns.

3. A client is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the client include?

• A. Use a condom with sexual intercourse
• B. Avoid bubble bath solution when taking a tub bath
• C. Wipe from front to back when performing perineal hygiene
• D. Keep a daily record of fetal kick counts

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Keeping a daily record of fetal kick counts is crucial for clients with premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation as it helps monitor fetal well-being. This activity enables the client to assess the frequency and strength of fetal movements, which can provide important information about the fetus' health and development. Other options such as using a condom with sexual intercourse, avoiding bubble bath solution, and wiping from front to back are important for general perinatal care but are not specifically related to managing premature rupture of membranes.

4. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation is being educated about common discomforts of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the individual include? (Select all that apply)

• A. Breast tenderness
• B. Urinary frequency
• C. Epistaxis
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During early pregnancy, common discomforts include breast tenderness due to hormonal changes, urinary frequency caused by increased blood flow to the kidneys, and epistaxis (nosebleeds) due to increased blood volume and hormonal changes. Educating the client about these discomforts helps them understand what to expect during this stage. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because all the listed findings are common discomforts experienced during early pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are individually correct as well, as breast tenderness, urinary frequency, and epistaxis are all common discomforts that pregnant individuals may encounter.

5. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as a risk factor for the development of preeclampsia?

• A. Singleton pregnancy
• B. BMI of 20
• C. Maternal age of 32 years
• D. Pregestational diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pregestational diabetes mellitus is a significant risk factor for the development of preeclampsia in pregnant individuals. Preeclampsia is more common in women with preexisting conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, renal disease, lupus, or rheumatoid arthritis. Singleton pregnancy, a BMI of 20, or maternal age of 32 years are not considered significant risk factors for developing preeclampsia.

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