Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is caring for a client who is having a difficult, prolonged labor with severe backache. Which of the following contributing causes should the nurse identify?

• A. Fetal attitude is in general flexion.
• B. Fetal lie is longitudinal.
• C. Maternal pelvis is gynecoid.
• D. Fetal position is persistent occiput posterior.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In a persistent occiput posterior position, the baby's head presses against the mother's spine, causing prolonged labor and severe backache. This position can lead to difficulties in labor progress and increase discomfort for the mother. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the client's difficult, prolonged labor with severe backache. Fetal attitude, fetal lie, and maternal pelvis type may affect labor, but in this scenario, the persistent occiput posterior fetal position is the primary contributing cause for the client's symptoms.

2. A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?

• A. Active
• B. Transition
• C. Latent
• D. Descent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is in the transition phase of labor, characterized by cervical dilatation of 8 to 10 cm and contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, each lasting 45 to 90 seconds. In this phase, the cervix is nearly fully dilated, preparing the client for the pushing stage. The active phase of labor typically involves cervical dilatation from 4 to 7 cm, whereas the latent phase is the early phase of labor when the cervix dilates from 0 to 3 cm. Descent is not a phase of labor but rather refers to the movement of the fetus through the birth canal during the second stage of labor.

3. A client who is at 8 weeks of gestation tells the nurse, 'I am not sure I am happy about being pregnant.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. I will inform the provider that you are having these feelings.
• B. It is normal to have these feelings during the first few months of pregnancy.
• C. You should be happy that you are going to bring new life into the world.
• D. I am going to make an appointment with the counselor for you to discuss these thoughts.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the first few months of pregnancy, it is common for individuals to experience mixed feelings due to hormonal changes and the significant life adjustments that come with pregnancy. The nurse's response should acknowledge the client's feelings as normal and provide reassurance rather than dismissive or directive statements. By acknowledging the normalcy of these emotions, the nurse validates the client's experience and offers support during this critical time. Choices A, C, and D are less appropriate. Choice A focuses on informing the provider without addressing the client's emotions directly. Choice C disregards the client's current feelings and imposes a specific emotional response. Choice D jumps to scheduling a counseling appointment without first acknowledging the client's emotions or providing immediate support and validation.

4. When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?

• A. Blood-tinged sputum
• B. Dizziness
• C. Pallor
• D. Somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Question: When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations? Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, causes vasodilation, potentially leading to a decrease in blood pressure and side effects such as dizziness. Monitoring for dizziness is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with nifedipine use for preventing preterm labor. Blood-tinged sputum may indicate other conditions like pulmonary issues, pallor could suggest anemia or circulatory problems, and somnolence is not a common side effect of nifedipine.

5. While caring for a newborn undergoing phototherapy to treat hyperbilirubinemia, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Cover the newborn's eyes with an opaque eye mask while under the phototherapy light.
• B. Keep the newborn in a shirt while under the phototherapy light.
• C. Apply a light moisturizing lotion to the newborn's skin.
• D. Turn and reposition the newborn every 4 hours while undergoing phototherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is crucial to cover the newborn's eyes with an opaque eye mask to prevent damage to the retinas and corneas from the phototherapy light. The eyes are particularly sensitive to the light used in phototherapy, and shielding them helps protect the newborn's delicate eyes from potential harm. Choice B is incorrect because the newborn should be undressed to maximize skin exposure to the phototherapy light. Choice C is incorrect because lotions or oils can interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy. Choice D is incorrect because the newborn should be kept as still as possible to maximize exposure to the light.

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