a nurse is assessing a client in labor who has had epidural anesthesia for pain relief which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a a nurse is assessing a client in labor who has had epidural anesthesia for pain relief which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a
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1. During an assessment of a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia, which finding should the nurse identify as a complication of the epidural block?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypotension is a common complication of epidural anesthesia due to the vasodilation effect of the medication. Epidural anesthesia can lead to vasodilation, causing a decrease in blood pressure. This hypotension may result in decreased perfusion to vital organs and compromise maternal and fetal well-being. Tachycardia is less likely as a complication of epidural anesthesia since it tends to have a vasodilatory effect. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with other forms of anesthesia, such as general anesthesia, rather than epidural anesthesia. Vomiting is not typically a direct complication of epidural anesthesia and is more commonly seen with other factors such as pain or medications given during labor.

2. Which of the following is an early indicator that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Irritability is an early indicator that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy because it can signal discomfort or difficulty breathing due to mucus accumulation, prompting the need for suctioning to clear the airway. Bradycardia (Choice A) and hypotension (Choice B) are not typically early indicators of the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy. Confusion (Choice D) is also not a direct early indicator of the need for suctioning in this context.

3. Which level of health facility is the usual point of entry for a client into the healthcare delivery system?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary level of health facility is the usual point of entry for a client into the healthcare delivery system. This level typically involves initial consultations, preventive care, and basic treatment services. Clients often start their healthcare journey at the primary level before being referred to higher levels of care if needed.

4. In the emergency department, a nurse is performing triage for multiple clients following a disaster in the community. To which of the following types of injuries should the nurse assign the highest priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A below-the-knee amputation requires immediate attention due to the risk of hemorrhage and shock, making it the highest priority. This type of injury can lead to significant blood loss and impaired perfusion, which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. While a 10 cm laceration, a fractured tibia, and a 95% full-thickness body burn are serious injuries requiring urgent care, they do not pose the same immediate threat to life as a below-the-knee amputation. The laceration may require suturing to control bleeding and prevent infection, the fractured tibia needs stabilization to prevent further damage and pain, and the burn necessitates immediate management to prevent complications, but they are not as acutely life-threatening as the amputation.

5. A client has a new prescription for docusate sodium. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When taking docusate sodium, it is important to take the medication with a full glass of water to help ensure its proper effectiveness. This helps prevent the stool from hardening and makes it easier to pass, especially for individuals experiencing constipation. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific instruction to take docusate sodium at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because docusate sodium does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to avoid taking docusate sodium with antacids.

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