Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs
• B. Decreased blood pressure in the arms with increased blood pressure in the legs
• C. Increased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
• D. Decreased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities and decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities due to decreased blood flow beyond the narrowing. Choice B is incorrect because coarctation of the aorta does not lead to increased blood pressure in the legs. Choice C is incorrect because increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not a typical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice D is incorrect because decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not characteristic of coarctation of the aorta.

2. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?

• A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
• B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
• C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
• D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.

3. When teaching a new mother how to use a bulb syringe to suction her newborn's secretions, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Insert the syringe tip after compressing the bulb.
• B. Suction each nare before suctioning the mouth.
• C. Insert the tip of the syringe at the center of the newborn's mouth.
• D. Stop suctioning when the newborn's cry sounds clear.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for using a bulb syringe to suction a newborn's secretions is to stop suctioning when the newborn's cry no longer sounds like it is coming through a bubble of fluid or mucus. This indicates that the airways are clear, and further suctioning is not needed to prevent irritation or damage to the delicate tissues of the newborn's nose and throat. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because inserting the syringe tip before compressing the bulb, suctioning each nare before the mouth, and inserting the tip at the center of the mouth can potentially harm the newborn and are not recommended practices for using a bulb syringe in this context.

4. A client who is at 22 weeks gestation is being educated by a nurse about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. You will lie on your right side during the procedure.
• B. You should not eat anything for 24 hours before the procedure.
• C. You should empty your bladder before the procedure.
• D. The test is performed to determine gestational age.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should advise the client to empty her bladder before an amniocentesis to minimize the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. This precaution helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the procedure by reducing potential complications related to bladder puncture. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because lying on the right side, fasting for 24 hours, and determining gestational age are not relevant instructions for an amniocentesis procedure.

5. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

• A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
• B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
• C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
• D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.

Similar Questions