Nursing Elites

1. A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?

• A. Active
• B. Transition
• C. Latent
• D. Descent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is in the transition phase of labor, characterized by cervical dilatation of 8 to 10 cm and contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, each lasting 45 to 90 seconds. In this phase, the cervix is nearly fully dilated, preparing the client for the pushing stage. The active phase of labor typically involves cervical dilatation from 4 to 7 cm, whereas the latent phase is the early phase of labor when the cervix dilates from 0 to 3 cm. Descent is not a phase of labor but rather refers to the movement of the fetus through the birth canal during the second stage of labor.

2. When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations?

• A. Blood-tinged sputum
• B. Dizziness
• C. Pallor
• D. Somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Question: When caring for a client receiving nifedipine for prevention of preterm labor, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations? Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, causes vasodilation, potentially leading to a decrease in blood pressure and side effects such as dizziness. Monitoring for dizziness is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with nifedipine use for preventing preterm labor. Blood-tinged sputum may indicate other conditions like pulmonary issues, pallor could suggest anemia or circulatory problems, and somnolence is not a common side effect of nifedipine.

3. A newborn who was born at 38 weeks of gestation, weighs 3,200 g, and is in the 60th percentile for weight should be classified as which of the following?

• A. Low birth weight
• B. Appropriate for gestational age
• C. Small for gestational age
• D. Large for gestational age

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The classification of a newborn as appropriate for gestational age is determined by considering the weight and gestational age. In this case, the newborn's weight falls within the normal range for the gestational age, indicating that the newborn is appropriately sized for the length of time spent in the womb. Choice A, 'Low birth weight,' is incorrect as the newborn's weight is within the normal range. Choice C, 'Small for gestational age,' is incorrect because the newborn's weight is not below the 10th percentile for gestational age. Choice D, 'Large for gestational age,' is incorrect as the newborn's weight is not above the 90th percentile, rather falling within the 60th percentile which is considered normal.

4. A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased platelet count
• B. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• C. Decreased megakaryocytes
• D. Increased WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is characterized by an autoimmune response that leads to a decreased platelet count. This condition increases the risk of bleeding due to the low platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in managing ITP, as it helps determine the risk of bleeding and guides treatment decisions. Therefore, the correct finding to expect in a client with ITP is a decreased platelet count. Choice B, an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), is not typically associated with ITP. Choice C, decreased megakaryocytes, may be seen in conditions like aplastic anemia but are not a typical finding in ITP. Choice D, an increased white blood cell count (WBC), is not a characteristic feature of ITP.

5. A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. This test screens for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus.
• B. It assesses various markers of fetal well-being.
• C. This test identifies an Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus.
• D. It is a screening test for spinal defects in the fetus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) test is performed around 15-18 weeks of gestation to screen for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus, not to assess fetal lung maturity, markers of fetal well-being, or Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the purpose of the MSAFP test. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the primary goal of this screening test.

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