a nurse is planning care for a client who has a chest tube which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure proper functioning of the ch
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure proper functioning of the chest tube?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure proper functioning of a chest tube, the nurse should keep the drainage system below chest level. This position allows for proper drainage by gravity and prevents backflow into the pleural space. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage chamber every 4 hours is important but not directly related to maintaining the chest tube's function. Applying sterile gauze around the insertion site daily is essential for infection prevention but does not specifically ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube.

2. A nurse is admitted to a psychiatric unit and fails to follow her medication regimen. What does this behavior indicate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Lack of health literacy.' The nurse's inability to follow the medication regimen suggests she may lack health literacy, meaning she may not fully understand how to manage her own health care. Choice A, 'Early cognitive impairment,' is not supported by the information provided in the question as there is no mention of cognitive decline. Choice B, 'Lack of motivation,' is less likely as the behavior is more indicative of a knowledge deficit rather than a lack of drive. Choice D, 'Worsening health state,' is also less likely as the behavior described does not directly imply a worsening health condition but rather a misunderstanding or lack of knowledge on managing health.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

4. A client with diabetes is receiving education on foot care. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspect feet daily for cuts and sores. Clients with diabetes are at an increased risk of foot complications, so it is essential to check for any cuts, sores, or injuries daily to prevent infections and complications. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to skin breakdown. Wearing closed-toe shoes at all times (choice C) is not advisable as it can cause excessive pressure and friction. Trimming toenails straight across (choice D) is the correct method to prevent ingrown toenails, not trimming them in a rounded shape.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit their intake of phosphorus because high phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and cardiovascular problems. Increasing foods high in potassium (choice B) is not recommended as it can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease. Decreasing intake of foods high in iron (choice C) is not specifically indicated for chronic kidney disease. Increasing calcium supplements (choice D) may not be necessary and can potentially lead to hypercalcemia in individuals with kidney disease.

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