Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?

• A. History of fibroids
• B. Early menopause
• C. Endometriosis
• D. Polycystic ovary syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Endometriosis. Endometriosis is associated with an increased risk of developing ovarian cancer due to chronic inflammation and hormonal imbalances. The exact cause is not fully understood, but women with endometriosis should be monitored closely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Fibroids, early menopause, and polycystic ovary syndrome do not have a known direct correlation with ovarian cancer risk.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following should the nurse do?

• A. Check INR levels
• B. Administer it with food
• C. Monitor blood glucose
• D. Assess liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check INR levels. Before administering warfarin, it is crucial to check the INR levels to ensure they are within the therapeutic range. This helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice B, administering it with food, is incorrect as warfarin should typically be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C, monitoring blood glucose, is unrelated to the administration of warfarin. Choice D, assessing liver function, is important but not the immediate action required before administering warfarin.

3. A client with heart failure who presents with dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum should receive which dietary recommendation?

• A. Decrease protein intake.
• B. Reduce sodium intake.
• C. Increase fluid intake.
• D. Decrease calcium intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reduce sodium intake. In heart failure, excess sodium can lead to fluid retention, exacerbating symptoms like dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum. Therefore, reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing heart failure. Decreasing protein intake is not typically recommended in heart failure management. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by further contributing to fluid overload. Decreasing calcium intake is not directly related to managing heart failure symptoms such as dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in preterm labor and is receiving magnesium sulfate via IV infusion. Which of the following findings indicates magnesium toxicity?

• A. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL
• B. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
• C. Systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg
• D. BUN 20 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine output of 20 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity because decreased urine output can lead to accumulation of magnesium. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, high systolic blood pressure, and normal BUN levels do not specifically point towards magnesium toxicity.

5. A client has been taking propranolol. Which of the following findings indicates a need to withhold the medication?

• A. Sodium 130 mEq/L
• B. Blood pressure 156/90 mm Hg
• C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Pulse 54/min

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pulse of 54/min indicates bradycardia, which is a side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker. The medication should be withheld if the client's pulse drops below 60/min. The other findings (sodium levels, blood pressure, and potassium levels) are not directly indicative of the need to withhold propranolol.

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