Nursing Elites

1. During a Leopold maneuver, a healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position. Which fetal presentation should be documented in the client's medical record?

• A. Vertex
• B. Shoulder
• C. Breech
• D. Mentum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Breech." The RSA position indicates that the fetus is in a breech presentation. In a breech presentation, the buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first, which can impact the mode of delivery and require close monitoring during labor and birth. Choice A (Vertex) refers to the head-first presentation, which is considered the normal and most common presentation for birth. Choice B (Shoulder) does not represent a specific fetal presentation. Choice D (Mentum) refers to the chin presentation, which is also not relevant in this scenario.

2. A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?

• A. The client's room number
• B. The client's telephone number
• C. The client's birth date
• D. The client's medical record number

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the client's room number as a secondary identifier is not an appropriate method for client identification in healthcare settings. It can lead to confusion and potential errors, especially in a busy environment like a postpartum unit. Room numbers are not unique to individual patients and can change frequently. Instead, healthcare providers should use more reliable and specific identifiers like the client's name, medical record number, or date of birth to ensure accurate identification and safe administration of medications. Choices B, C, and D are more appropriate secondary identifiers for client identification as they are more specific and less prone to errors than room numbers.

3. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states, 'I missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because I have an intrauterine device.' The nurse should suspect which of the following?

• A. Missed abortion
• B. Ectopic pregnancy
• C. Severe preeclampsia
• D. Hydatidiform mole

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ectopic pregnancy should be suspected in clients with abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding, especially if they have an intrauterine device (IUD). In this case, the client's symptoms are classic for ectopic pregnancy, where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. Missed abortion (choice A) refers to a nonviable embryo or fetus in the uterus, which is not consistent with the client's presentation. Severe preeclampsia (choice C) is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, not the symptoms described. Hydatidiform mole (choice D) presents with vaginal bleeding but typically lacks abdominal pain and is not related to the presence of an IUD.

4. A client who is postpartum received methylergonovine. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?

• A. Increase in blood pressure
• B. Fundus firm to palpation
• C. Increase in lochia
• D. Report of absent breast pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Methylergonovine is used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. A firm fundus indicates effective uterine contraction and less bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is a firm fundus to palpation. The increase in blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical finding associated with the effectiveness of methylergonovine. Increase in lochia (Choice C) may indicate excessive bleeding rather than the medication's effectiveness. Absence of breast pain (Choice D) is not directly related to the medication's effectiveness in treating postpartum hemorrhage.

5. A client in active labor has 7 cm of cervical dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetus at 1+ station. The client's amniotic membranes are intact, but she suddenly expresses the need to push. What should the nurse do?

• A. Assist the client into a comfortable position.
• B. Observe the perineum for signs of crowning.
• C. Have the client pant during the next contractions.
• D. Help the client to the bathroom to void.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having the client pant during contractions is crucial to prevent premature pushing, particularly when the cervix is not fully dilated. Premature pushing can lead to cervical swelling and may impede the progress of labor. It is important to allow the cervix to fully dilate before active pushing to prevent complications. Assisting the client into a comfortable position (Choice A) may not address the urge to push and can lead to premature pushing. Observing the perineum for signs of crowning (Choice B) is important but does not address the immediate need to prevent premature pushing. Helping the client to the bathroom to void (Choice D) does not address the urge to push and may not be appropriate at this stage of labor.

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