ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
1. A nurse is caring for several clients. The nurse should recognize that it is safe to administer tocolytic therapy to which of the following clients?
- A. A client who is experiencing fetal death at 32 weeks of gestation
- B. A client who is experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation
- C. A client who is experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions at 36 weeks of gestation
- D. A client who has a post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks of gestation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tocolytic therapy is used to suppress premature labor. It is appropriate to administer it to a client experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation to help delay delivery and improve neonatal outcomes. Administering tocolytic therapy to a client experiencing fetal death, Braxton-Hicks contractions, or post-term pregnancy is not indicated and may not be safe or effective in these situations. Fetal death at 32 weeks indicates a non-viable pregnancy, Braxton-Hicks contractions are normal and not indicative of preterm labor, and post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks does not require tocolytic therapy.
2. A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past 2 weeks. After an examination, the provider informs the client that the fetus has died, and the placenta, fetus, and tissues remain in the uterus. How should the nurse document these findings?
- A. Incomplete miscarriage
- B. Missed miscarriage
- C. Inevitable miscarriage
- D. Complete miscarriage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Missed miscarriage.' In a missed miscarriage, fetal and placental tissues are retained in the uterus after fetal demise, which matches the scenario described in the question. This situation often requires medical or surgical intervention to remove the remaining products of conception and prevent complications. 'Incomplete miscarriage' (Choice A) typically involves partial expulsion of products of conception, 'Inevitable miscarriage' (Choice C) indicates that miscarriage is in progress and cannot be stopped, and 'Complete miscarriage' (Choice D) signifies that all products of conception have been expelled from the uterus.
3. When calculating the Apgar score of a newborn at 1 minute after delivery, which of the following findings would result in a score of 6?
- A. 4
- B. 5
- C. 6
- D. 7
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the newborn's findings at 1 minute after delivery indicate a heart rate >100/min (2 points), slow, weak cry (1 point), some flexion of extremities (1 point), grimace in response to suctioning (1 point), and body pink with blue extremities (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total Apgar score of 6, reflecting the newborn's initial assessment for their overall well-being. Choice A (4) is too low based on the given findings, while Choice B (5) is also lower than the correct score of 6. Choice D (7) is too high as it would require additional findings to reach that score.
4. When monitoring uterine contractions in a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds
- B. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes
- C. Contractions are strong in intensity
- D. Client reports feeling contractions in the lower back
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the active phase of the first stage of labor, contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, leading to decreased placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes are within the normal range for the active phase of labor. Strong contractions and feeling contractions in the lower back are common experiences during labor and not necessarily concerning unless associated with other complications.
5. A client who is at 22 weeks of gestation reports concern about the blotchy hyperpigmentation on her forehead. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the client to follow up with a dermatologist.
- B. Explain to the client this is an expected occurrence.
- C. Instruct the client to increase her intake of vitamin D.
- D. Inform the client she might have an allergy to her skin care products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is a blotchy, brown hyperpigmentation of the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead. It is most common in dark-skinned women and is caused by an increase in melanotropin during pregnancy. This condition typically appears after 16 weeks of gestation and gradually increases until delivery for 50 to 70% of women. The nurse should reassure the client that this is an expected occurrence, which usually fades after delivery. Therefore, explaining to the client that this is an expected occurrence is the appropriate action in this situation. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because chloasma is a common skin change during pregnancy and does not require a referral to a dermatologist, an increase in vitamin D intake, or suspicion of an allergy to skin care products.
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