Nursing Elites

1. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Oxytocin
• B. Nifedipine
• C. Dinoprostone
• D. Misoprostol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice because it is a calcium channel blocker that helps relax the uterus and stop preterm labor. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce labor, not to stop preterm labor. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used to induce labor and ripen the cervix, not to stop preterm labor.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for chlorothiazide to treat hypertension. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Thrombophlebitis
• B. Hyperactive reflexes
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. Chlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, which can cause muscle weakness. Thrombophlebitis (choice A) is not typically associated with chlorothiazide use. Hyperactive reflexes (choice B) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not commonly linked to this medication. Therefore, monitoring for muscle weakness is crucial when a client is prescribed chlorothiazide.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for amphotericin B. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Constipation
• D. Nephrotoxicity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Amphotericin B is known for its nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Monitoring kidney function is crucial to detect any signs of nephrotoxicity early. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hyperkalemia, hypertension, and constipation are not typically associated with amphotericin B use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for nephrotoxicity.

4. A nurse is administering subcutaneous heparin to a client who is at risk for deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication into the client's abdomen.
• B. Inject the medication into a muscle.
• C. Massage the site after administering the medication.
• D. Use a 22-gauge needle to administer the medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heparin is best absorbed and less likely to cause hematomas when administered into subcutaneous tissue, specifically the abdomen, which is a common site for subcutaneous injections. Injecting heparin into a muscle (Choice B) is incorrect as it should be administered subcutaneously. Massaging the site after administering the medication (Choice C) is contraindicated as it can cause tissue damage or bruising. Using a 22-gauge needle (Choice D) is not recommended for subcutaneous injections of heparin; a smaller needle size such as 25-26 gauge is preferred for subcutaneous administration.

5. A client with a severe urinary tract infection (UTI) asks why both ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Phenazopyridine decreases adverse effects of ciprofloxacin.
• B. Combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin shortens the course of therapy.
• C. The use of phenazopyridine allows for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin.
• D. Ciprofloxacin treats the infection, and phenazopyridine treats pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that treats the infection, while phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain. Choice A is incorrect because phenazopyridine does not decrease adverse effects of ciprofloxacin; it primarily addresses pain. Choice B is incorrect because combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin does not shorten the course of therapy; they serve different purposes. Choice C is incorrect because the use of phenazopyridine does not allow for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin; they have independent roles in UTI management.

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