a nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing preterm labor which of the following medications should the nurse p
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A

1. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice because it is a calcium channel blocker that helps relax the uterus and stop preterm labor. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce labor, not to stop preterm labor. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used to induce labor and ripen the cervix, not to stop preterm labor.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a parent of a child who has asthma and a new prescription for a cromolyn sodium metered dose inhaler. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cromolyn sodium is a preventive medication and should not be used as a rescue inhaler when wheezing starts. This indicates a need for further teaching as the parent should understand that cromolyn sodium is not meant for immediate relief of symptoms. Choice B is correct as rinsing the mouth after using the inhaler helps reduce the risk of oral thrush, a common side effect. Choice C is correct as exhaling completely before using the inhaler helps ensure proper inhalation of the medication. Choice D is correct as a spacer can be used if the child has difficulty coordinating breathing with the inhaler, improving medication delivery.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every eight hours. The amount available is heparin injection 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume of heparin to administer per dose, divide the prescribed dose (8,000 units) by the concentration of heparin available (10,000 units/mL). 8000 units / 10000 units/mL = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL per dose. Choice B, 0.9 mL, is incorrect as the correct calculation results in 0.8 mL. Choices C and D are significantly higher and incorrect, indicating an inaccurate calculation.

4. A client with a severe urinary tract infection (UTI) asks why both ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic that treats the infection, while phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain. Choice A is incorrect because phenazopyridine does not decrease adverse effects of ciprofloxacin; it primarily addresses pain. Choice B is incorrect because combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin does not shorten the course of therapy; they serve different purposes. Choice C is incorrect because the use of phenazopyridine does not allow for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin; they have independent roles in UTI management.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bleeding. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Therefore, one of the main adverse effects of clopidogrel is an increased risk of bleeding. Insomnia (Choice A), hypotension (Choice B), and constipation (Choice D) are not commonly associated with clopidogrel use. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, is crucial when a client is taking clopidogrel.

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