Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 10 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Axillary temperature 36.5°C (97.7°F)
• B. Nasal flaring
• C. Heart rate 158/min
• D. One void since birth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasal flaring can indicate respiratory distress in a newborn, which is a critical finding requiring immediate attention. This may suggest an issue with breathing or lung function. Reporting nasal flaring promptly allows the provider to assess and intervene to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stable. Choices A, C, and D are within normal parameters for a 10-hour-old newborn and do not indicate an immediate concern. An axillary temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) is within the normal range for a newborn. A heart rate of 158/min is typical for a newborn, and one void since birth is an expected finding at this early stage.

2. A charge nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse on how to clean surfaces contaminated with blood. Which of the following agents should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Hydrogen peroxide
• B. Chlorhexidine
• C. Isopropyl alcohol
• D. Chlorine bleach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlorine bleach is the recommended agent for cleaning blood spills due to its effectiveness in killing bloodborne pathogens like HIV and hepatitis B. Hydrogen peroxide, Chlorhexidine, and Isopropyl alcohol are not as effective as chlorine bleach in disinfecting surfaces contaminated with blood and eliminating bloodborne pathogens, making them incorrect choices.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Feelings of dread
• B. Rapid speech
• C. Purposeless activity
• D. Heightened perceptual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In mild anxiety, the client is expected to have a heightened perceptual field. This means that their perception is increased, enhancing their awareness and ability to concentrate. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more common in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice B) and purposeless activity (Choice C) are more indicative of moderate to severe anxiety where the individual may exhibit signs of agitation and restlessness.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client prescribed amiodarone. Which of the following should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Serum potassium levels
• C. Blood pressure
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amiodarone is known to potentially affect liver function, potassium levels, and blood pressure. Monitoring all these parameters regularly is crucial to detect any adverse effects early on. Liver function tests are necessary as amiodarone can cause hepatotoxicity. Serum potassium levels should be monitored due to the risk of hypokalemia or hyperkalemia with amiodarone use. Blood pressure monitoring is essential as amiodarone can cause hypotension or hypertension. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer because all these parameters should be monitored to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring only one or two of these parameters may lead to missing important signs of adverse effects.

5. A client who signed an informed consent form for surgery but has since expressed doubts about the need for surgery is being assisted by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. You should not worry about it
• B. The surgeon will answer your questions before surgery
• C. It’s too late to cancel the surgery
• D. You need to trust the medical team

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should encourage the client to express concerns and ensure that the surgeon addresses any questions prior to the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's worries. Choice C is incorrect because it does not respect the client's autonomy in decision-making. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's doubts directly or provide reassurance.

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