ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Fundamentals Quiz
1. While documenting client care, which of the following entries should the nurse identify as an example of implementing client care?
- A. Contacting the provider to report client findings
- B. Administering medications as prescribed
- C. Reviewing the client's lab results
- D. Discussing the care plan with the family
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering medications as prescribed is a clear example of implementing client care because it involves carrying out a specific aspect of the care plan. Contacting the provider to report client findings is more related to assessment and communication. Reviewing the client's lab results is part of assessment and data collection. Discussing the care plan with the family is focused on collaboration and planning, rather than direct implementation.
2. A client is being cared for by a nurse with dehydration. What is the priority intervention?
- A. Administer antiemetics to reduce nausea
- B. Encourage the client to drink oral rehydration solutions
- C. Monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte levels
- D. Administer intravenous fluids
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte levels. When caring for a client with dehydration, it is crucial to assess and monitor their fluid and electrolyte status to guide appropriate interventions. Administering antiemetics may help with nausea but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink oral rehydration solutions is beneficial but may not be the immediate priority if the client is severely dehydrated. Administering intravenous fluids may be necessary based on the assessment of fluid and electrolyte levels, making monitoring these levels the priority intervention.
3. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
- B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
- C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
- D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.
4. What types of muscular movement occur in the intestine?
- A. Longitudinal and circular.
- B. Expulsion and traction.
- C. Tonus and clonus.
- D. Intermittent and continuous.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Longitudinal and circular. Longitudinal and circular muscles are responsible for the movements that help propel food through the intestine. Choice B, expulsion and traction, is incorrect as these terms do not specifically relate to the types of muscular movement in the intestine. Choice C, tonus and clonus, refers to different types of muscle contractions and are not the primary movements in the intestine. Choice D, intermittent and continuous, does not accurately describe the specific types of muscular movement that occur in the intestine.
5. A client with a new diagnosis of hyperlipidemia is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will decrease my intake of fiber.
- B. I will increase my intake of red meat.
- C. I will decrease my intake of saturated fats.
- D. I will increase my intake of salt.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Decreasing saturated fats is essential in managing hyperlipidemia. Saturated fats can raise LDL cholesterol levels, contributing to the condition. By reducing intake of saturated fats, the client can help lower their cholesterol levels and improve their overall lipid profile. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fiber intake (Choice A) is not recommended as fiber can help lower cholesterol levels. Increasing red meat intake (Choice B) is not advisable as red meat is often high in saturated fats. Increasing salt intake (Choice D) is unrelated to managing hyperlipidemia and can even be detrimental due to its association with high blood pressure.
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