ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for atorvastatin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Potassium levels
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Serum calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Atorvastatin, a medication commonly used to lower cholesterol levels, can potentially cause liver damage as a side effect. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any abnormalities early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atorvastatin is not known to directly impact potassium levels, blood glucose levels, or serum calcium levels. While these parameters may be monitored for other reasons, the priority when administering atorvastatin is to monitor liver function due to the risk of hepatotoxicity.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Diazepam IV
- B. Lorazepam PO
- C. Diltiazem IV
- D. Clonazepam PO
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with celiac disease. Which food should be removed from the meal tray?
- A. Cornbread
- B. Mashed potatoes
- C. Lentils
- D. Tortillas
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tortillas. Clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is often found in tortillas. Cornbread, mashed potatoes, and lentils are gluten-free options, making them safe for individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the other choices (A, B, and C) do not need to be removed from the meal tray.
4. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being cared for by a nurse. Which food selection indicates the client understands dietary teaching?
- A. A sandwich and milkshake
- B. Rice with black beans
- C. Cottage cheese and tuna lettuce
- D. Three-egg omelet with low-sodium ham
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For clients with hepatic encephalopathy, foods high in protein like cottage cheese and tuna should be avoided. Plant-based protein sources like beans are recommended due to their lower ammonia production during digestion. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they include high-protein or high-sodium foods that can worsen the condition of hepatic encephalopathy.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?
- A. Confusion
- B. Thirst
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Shakiness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.
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