Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is receiving enteral feedings. The client reports feeling nauseated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer an antiemetic.
• B. Check the client’s bowel sounds.
• C. Slow the rate of the feeding.
• D. Place the client in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with a nasogastric tube reports feeling nauseated is to check the client's bowel sounds. This assessment helps the nurse evaluate for possible complications, such as a blockage or decreased gastric motility, that could be causing the nausea. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) should not be the first action without assessing the underlying cause of the nausea. Slowing the rate of the feeding (Choice C) may be appropriate but is not the priority until further assessment is done. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not typically indicated for managing nausea in this situation.

2. A client who has undergone a cesarean birth is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

• A. Limit stair climbing for the first few weeks
• B. Avoid lifting anything heavier than the newborn
• C. Use a pillow to support the abdomen when coughing or sneezing
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a cesarean birth, it is important for the client to follow specific instructions for optimal recovery. Limiting stair climbing reduces strain on the incision site, aiding in healing (Choice A). Avoiding lifting anything heavier than the newborn prevents stress on the incision, promoting recovery (Choice B). Using a pillow to support the abdomen during coughing or sneezing helps reduce discomfort and protect the incision, preventing sudden movements or strain (Choice C). Therefore, all the options provided are crucial post-cesarean birth instructions to ensure proper healing and recovery. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of post-cesarean care, making Option D the correct answer.

3. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Atropine
• D. Diazepam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.

4. A nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Use a designated stethoscope for the toddler
• B. Wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the toddler
• C. Place the toddler in a negative pressure room
• D. Remove the disposable gown before leaving the toddler's room

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope for the toddler is crucial to reduce the risk of spreading RSV to other patients. Choice B is incorrect because N95 respirator masks are not specifically indicated for RSV. Choice C is unnecessary as RSV does not require isolation in a negative pressure room. Choice D is incorrect because the gown should be removed after leaving the room to prevent transmission of pathogens to other areas.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab report of a client who has been experiencing a fever for the last 3 days. What lab result indicates the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit (FVD)?

• A. Decreased hematocrit
• B. Increased BUN
• C. Increased hematocrit
• D. Decreased urine specific gravity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An increased hematocrit level indicates dehydration or fluid volume deficit. Hematocrit measures the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells, and when a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, there is less fluid in the blood, causing the concentration of red blood cells to be higher, leading to an increased hematocrit level. Decreased hematocrit (Choice A) is more indicative of fluid volume excess. Increased BUN (Choice B) is associated with renal function and dehydration but is not a direct indicator of FVD. Decreased urine specific gravity (Choice D) is also associated with dehydration, but an increased hematocrit is a more specific indicator of fluid volume deficit.

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