Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of insulin. Which of the following should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the expiration date
• B. Verify the client's blood glucose level
• C. Obtain the client's weight
• D. Assess for signs of hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood glucose level first before administering insulin. This step is crucial to determine the appropriate dose of insulin based on the client's current blood glucose level. Checking the expiration date (Choice A) is important but not the first step in this scenario. Obtaining the client's weight (Choice C) is not directly related to the immediate administration of insulin. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia (Choice D) should be done after administering insulin to monitor for potential side effects or adverse reactions.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver?

• A. 30 gtt/min
• B. 32 gtt/min
• C. 33 gtt/min
• D. 35 gtt/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calculation: 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL ÷ 15 min = 33.33, rounded to 33 gtt/min. This ensures proper delivery of the medication over the prescribed time. Choice A is incorrect because it does not factor in the precise calculation based on the given data. Choice B is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate rate of infusion required. Choice D is incorrect as it does not align with the correct calculation based on the drop factor and infusion parameters provided in the question.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth 1 week ago. The client states, 'I don't know what's wrong. I love my baby, but I feel so let down and I seem to cry for no reason.' The nurse should identify that the client is experiencing which of the following emotional responses to birth?

• A. Postpartum depression
• B. Taking-in phase
• C. Postpartum blues
• D. Taking-hold phase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing postpartum blues, not postpartum depression. Postpartum blues are common and characterized by mood swings, tearfulness, and emotional letdown shortly after delivery. The 'Taking-in phase' involves the mother focusing on her own needs, while the 'Taking-hold phase' is characterized by a desire to learn and feel competent in caring for the baby. Postpartum depression is a more severe and long-lasting condition that requires professional intervention.

4. A nurse is caring for a client 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy who reports fullness in the throat. What should the nurse assess for?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hemorrhage
• C. Hypoxia
• D. Hypothyroidism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fullness in the throat after a thyroidectomy could indicate bleeding or a hematoma, which can compress the airway, so hemorrhage is the priority concern. Hypocalcemia typically presents with symptoms like tingling around the mouth or in the extremities, muscle cramps, or seizures, not fullness in the throat. Hypoxia would manifest with symptoms like shortness of breath, confusion, or cyanosis, rather than a feeling of fullness in the throat. Hypothyroidism symptoms include fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance, but it does not typically cause acute fullness in the throat postoperatively.

5. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
• B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
• C. No action is needed at this time.
• D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

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