ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of insulin. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the expiration date
- B. Verify the client's blood glucose level
- C. Obtain the client's weight
- D. Assess for signs of hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood glucose level first before administering insulin. This step is crucial to determine the appropriate dose of insulin based on the client's current blood glucose level. Checking the expiration date (Choice A) is important but not the first step in this scenario. Obtaining the client's weight (Choice C) is not directly related to the immediate administration of insulin. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia (Choice D) should be done after administering insulin to monitor for potential side effects or adverse reactions.
2. A nurse is monitoring a client during an IV urography procedure. Which of the following client reports is the priority finding?
- A. Feeling flushed and warm
- B. Abdominal fullness
- C. Swollen lips
- D. Metallic taste in the mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Swollen lips indicate a potential allergic reaction or anaphylaxis to the contrast dye used during the procedure, which requires immediate medical intervention. Abdominal fullness and metallic taste are common side effects of IV urography and can be managed without urgent intervention. Feeling flushed and warm may also be a common reaction during the procedure and does not indicate a life-threatening situation like an allergic reaction.
3. A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.
4. A client has been prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client to monitor for signs of toxicity?
- A. Nausea and vomiting
- B. Increased urination
- C. Tremors
- D. Blurred vision
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Lithium toxicity can present with symptoms such as tremors, nausea, and blurred vision. Tremors are a common early sign of lithium toxicity and should be monitored closely. While nausea and vomiting can also occur with lithium toxicity, tremors are more specific to lithium toxicity. Increased urination is not typically associated with lithium toxicity, and blurred vision is less common compared to tremors in this context.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client’s contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180/minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
- B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
- C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
- D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the contractions are too frequent (tachysystole), and the fetal heart rate is elevated. Tachysystole can lead to decreased oxygen perfusion to the fetus, causing fetal distress. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion to prevent harm to both the mother and fetus. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the current situation, potentially leading to further complications. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion may not be sufficient to address the tachysystole and elevated fetal heart rate, making it an inappropriate choice.
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