ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. A nurse is contributing to an in-service for newly-licensed nurses about child maltreatment. The nurse should include that which of the following characteristics increases a child's risk of physical maltreatment?
- A. Low birth weight
- B. Advanced maternal age
- C. Single parenthood
- D. Premature birth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Low birth weight increases a child's vulnerability to physical maltreatment due to additional care needs. Advanced maternal age (choice B) is not directly linked to an increased risk of physical maltreatment. Single parenthood (choice C) is not a characteristic that inherently increases the risk of physical maltreatment. Premature birth (choice D) is not listed as a characteristic that directly increases a child's risk of physical maltreatment.
2. A client with dementia is at risk of falling. What is the best intervention to prevent injury?
- A. Place the client in a room close to the nurses' station
- B. Use a bed exit alarm
- C. Encourage family members to stay with the client at all times
- D. Raise all four side rails
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using a bed exit alarm is the best intervention to prevent injury in a client with dementia at risk of falling. This device alerts staff when the client attempts to leave the bed, allowing for timely assistance and reducing the risk of falls. Placing the client in a room close to the nurses' station may help with supervision but does not provide immediate alerts like a bed exit alarm. Encouraging family members to stay with the client at all times may not be feasible, and raising all four side rails can lead to restraint issues and is not recommended unless necessary for the client's safety.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a colon resection. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
- A. Capillary refill
- B. Bowel sounds
- C. Temperature
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Oxygen saturation. The priority assessment in this situation is oxygen saturation because postoperative clients are at risk for respiratory complications, such as hypoxia due to factors like anesthesia effects, impaired lung function, or pain interfering with deep breathing. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to detect any respiratory compromise early. Capillary refill, bowel sounds, and temperature are important assessments but are not the priority in this immediate postoperative period.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
- B. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L
- C. Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.
5. What are the early signs of a pulmonary embolism?
- A. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia
- B. Fever, nausea, and vomiting
- C. Cough, cyanosis, and fatigue
- D. Abdominal pain and bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia. These are classic early signs of a pulmonary embolism. Chest pain may be sudden and sharp, worsened by deep breathing or coughing. Shortness of breath can be sudden and severe. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) is another common symptom. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent typical early signs of a pulmonary embolism.
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