Nursing Elites

1. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?

• A. Assess level of consciousness and motor function
• B. Check for headache and nausea
• C. Monitor reflexes and pupil size
• D. Assess for tremors and confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.

2. In the emergency department, a nurse is performing triage for multiple clients following a disaster in the community. To which of the following types of injuries should the nurse assign the highest priority?

• A. Below-the-knee amputation.
• B. 10 cm (4 in) laceration.
• C. Fractured tibia.
• D. 95% full-thickness body burn.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A below-the-knee amputation requires immediate attention due to the risk of hemorrhage and shock, making it the highest priority. This type of injury can lead to significant blood loss and impaired perfusion, which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. While a 10 cm laceration, a fractured tibia, and a 95% full-thickness body burn are serious injuries requiring urgent care, they do not pose the same immediate threat to life as a below-the-knee amputation. The laceration may require suturing to control bleeding and prevent infection, the fractured tibia needs stabilization to prevent further damage and pain, and the burn necessitates immediate management to prevent complications, but they are not as acutely life-threatening as the amputation.

3. While caring for a client with an IV infusion who develops redness and warmth at the IV site, what is the most appropriate intervention?

• A. Elevate the IV site and apply an ice pack
• B. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
• C. Apply a cold compress to the IV site
• D. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention when a client develops redness and warmth at the IV site, indicating phlebitis, is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. This is crucial to prevent further complications. Elevating the IV site and applying an ice pack (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice B) is not the primary intervention for phlebitis. Applying a cold compress (Choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the IV when phlebitis occurs.

4. A nurse manager is discussing the responsibility of nurses caring for clients who have Clostridium difficile. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Assign the client to a room with a negative air-flow system
• B. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer when leaving the client's room
• C. Clean contaminated surfaces in the client's room with a phenol solution
• D. Have family members wear a gown and gloves when visiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because having family members wear a gown and gloves when visiting a client with Clostridium difficile is essential to prevent the spread of infection. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Negative air-flow systems are not necessary for preventing the spread of C. difficile. While alcohol-based hand sanitizers are effective for routine hand hygiene, they may not be sufficient for C. difficile. Cleaning contaminated surfaces with a phenol solution is not the most effective method for preventing the spread of C. difficile, as spores can be resistant to many disinfectants.

5. When collecting data from a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Amnesia
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Hallucinations
• D. Severe agitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct manifestation to expect when collecting data from a client with PTSD is hypervigilance. Hypervigilance refers to increased alertness, which is a common symptom of PTSD. This heightened state of awareness is characterized by an exaggerated startle response, being easily startled, and constantly scanning the environment for potential threats. Amnesia (choice A) is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; it is more commonly associated with dissociative disorders. Hallucinations (choice C) involve perceiving things that are not present and are not typically a hallmark symptom of PTSD. Severe agitation (choice D) may occur in individuals with PTSD, but hypervigilance is a more specific and common manifestation associated with this disorder.

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