Nursing Elites

1. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?

• A. Assess level of consciousness and motor function
• B. Check for headache and nausea
• C. Monitor reflexes and pupil size
• D. Assess for tremors and confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.

2. What is the priority intervention for sepsis?

• A. Administer IV antibiotics
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Administer fluids
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the management of sepsis, prompt intervention is crucial. Administering IV antibiotics is essential to target the underlying infection. Monitoring blood pressure helps assess the patient's hemodynamic status. Administering fluids is vital to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, all the options are integral components of the initial management of sepsis, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choosing any single intervention over the others may delay optimal care and compromise patient outcomes.

3. What are the signs of hypoglycemia, and how should they be managed?

• A. Sweating, trembling; administer glucose
• B. Headache, confusion; administer insulin
• C. Dizziness, fatigue; administer glucose
• D. Increased heart rate; provide a high-sugar snack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of hypoglycemia are sweating and trembling. These should be managed by administering glucose to raise blood sugar levels. Headache, confusion, dizziness, fatigue, or increased heart rate are not typical signs of hypoglycemia. Administering insulin in response to hypoglycemia would further lower blood sugar levels, exacerbating the condition.

4. What are the risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes?

• A. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet
• B. Age, gender, and family history
• C. Smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension
• D. Frequent exercise and low-carbohydrate diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet are established risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes. Obesity puts extra pressure on the body's ability to properly control blood sugar levels. A sedentary lifestyle contributes to weight gain and insulin resistance. Poor diet, especially one high in processed foods and sugary beverages, can also increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because age, gender, family history, smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension can impact overall health but are not the primary risk factors for Type 2 diabetes.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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