ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?
- A. Assess level of consciousness and motor function
- B. Check for headache and nausea
- C. Monitor reflexes and pupil size
- D. Assess for tremors and confusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for an abdominal paracentesis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take to prepare the client for this procedure?
- A. Assist the client to void
- B. Instruct the client to hold their breath
- C. Place the client in a lateral recumbent position
- D. Prepare to administer a sedative
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assisting the client to void before a paracentesis is essential to reduce the risk of bladder injury during the procedure. Voiding helps empty the bladder, preventing accidental puncture during the insertion of the needle. Instructing the client to hold their breath is incorrect and can increase the risk of complications. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position is not directly related to bladder safety during a paracentesis. Preparing to administer a sedative is not a standard preparation for this procedure and is not aimed at preventing bladder injury.
4. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen and call for emergency assistance
- B. Position the patient in a prone position and give fluids
- C. Administer anticoagulants and elevate the patient's legs
- D. Administer thrombolytics and perform chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen and calling for emergency assistance are the immediate priorities when managing a suspected pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps support the patient's respiratory function, while emergency assistance is crucial for further evaluation and treatment. Positioning the patient in a prone position or giving fluids can worsen the condition by impeding blood flow. Administering anticoagulants may be part of the treatment plan but is not the initial response. Thrombolytics and chest physiotherapy are not first-line treatments for suspected pulmonary embolism and can even be harmful without prior evaluation.
5. A client is receiving IV fluids and has developed phlebitis. What is the next step the nurse should take?
- A. Monitor the site for further swelling
- B. Remove the catheter and place it in another site
- C. Reduce the flow rate of IV fluids
- D. Switch to oral hydration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct next step when a client develops phlebitis while receiving IV fluids is to remove the catheter and place it in another site. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, and leaving the catheter in the same site can lead to further complications. Monitoring the site for further swelling, as in choice A, is not enough as the source of inflammation needs to be removed. Choice C, reducing the flow rate, may not address the underlying issue causing phlebitis. Switching to oral hydration, as in choice D, is not necessary for addressing phlebitis related to IV fluid administration.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access