ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?
- A. Assess level of consciousness and motor function
- B. Check for headache and nausea
- C. Monitor reflexes and pupil size
- D. Assess for tremors and confusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.
2. What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site?
- A. Apply a warm compress to the site
- B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
- C. Increase the IV flow rate to prevent dehydration
- D. Monitor the site for signs of infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and continuing the IV can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Increasing the IV flow rate is not indicated and may worsen the inflammation. Monitoring for signs of infection is important, but the priority is to remove the source of inflammation by discontinuing the IV.
3. A client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus inquires about information concerning oral antidiabetic agents. In addition to the provider, where should the nurse refer the client for information?
- A. Family members
- B. Pharmacist
- C. Dietitian
- D. American Diabetes Association
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: American Diabetes Association. The American Diabetes Association is a reputable source that provides credible information on managing diabetes. While family members can offer support, they may not have the specialized knowledge on oral antidiabetic agents. Pharmacists are knowledgeable about medications but may not provide comprehensive information on diabetes management. Dietitians can offer valuable advice on nutrition but may not cover specific details about oral antidiabetic agents. Therefore, referring the client to the American Diabetes Association ensures access to accurate and detailed information related to their condition.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Sodium
- B. Glucose
- C. Potassium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium depletion due to increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium (choice A) levels are not typically affected by furosemide. Glucose (choice B) monitoring is important with other medications like corticosteroids but is not directly related to furosemide use. Calcium (choice D) levels are not significantly impacted by furosemide.
5. Which of the following is an early indicator that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Irritability
- D. Confusion
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Irritability is an early indicator that suctioning is needed for a client with a tracheostomy because it can signal discomfort or difficulty breathing due to mucus accumulation, prompting the need for suctioning to clear the airway. Bradycardia (Choice A) and hypotension (Choice B) are not typically early indicators of the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy. Confusion (Choice D) is also not a direct early indicator of the need for suctioning in this context.
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