ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?
- A. Assess level of consciousness and motor function
- B. Check for headache and nausea
- C. Monitor reflexes and pupil size
- D. Assess for tremors and confusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.
2. A nurse on a med surge unit has received change of shift report and will care for 4 clients. Which of the following clients' needs will the nurse assign to an AP?
- A. Feeding a client who was admitted 24 hours ago with aspiration pneumonia
- B. Reinforcing teaching with a client who is learning to walk with a quad cane
- C. Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence
- D. Applying a sterile dressing to a pressure ulcer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because reapplying a condom catheter for a client with urinary incontinence is a task that can be safely assigned to an assistive personnel (AP) as it falls within their scope of practice. Choice A involves the assessment of a client with aspiration pneumonia, which requires nursing judgment. Choice B requires teaching and guidance, which is the responsibility of the nurse. Choice D involves applying a sterile dressing, which requires nursing skills and knowledge.
3. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with congestive heart failure?
- A. Administer diuretics and monitor fluid balance
- B. Provide a high-sodium diet and restrict fluids
- C. Administer oxygen and provide pain relief
- D. Provide bronchodilators and encourage mobility
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: The most appropriate management for a patient with congestive heart failure is to administer diuretics to help remove excess fluid and monitor fluid balance. Diuretics help reduce the workload on the heart and alleviate symptoms of fluid overload. Choice B is incorrect because patients with congestive heart failure are usually advised to limit sodium intake and carefully monitor fluid intake. Choice C is incorrect because although oxygen therapy may be necessary in certain cases, it is not the primary management for congestive heart failure. Pain relief is not a primary intervention for this condition. Choice D is incorrect because bronchodilators are not the first-line treatment for congestive heart failure. Encouraging mobility is important, but administering diuretics and monitoring fluid balance take precedence in managing this condition.
4. A client needs a 24-hour urine collection initiated. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the procedure?
- A. I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.
- B. I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.
- C. I flushed what I urinated at 7 am and have saved the rest since.
- D. I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the procedure, which involves discarding the first urine of the day at the specified time and then saving all subsequent urine for the next 24 hours. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect an understanding of the correct procedure. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements are not part of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice B is incorrect as it does not specify discarding the first urine. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions filling up the bottle quickly, which is not the correct way to collect a 24-hour urine sample.
5. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?
- A. Assess lung sounds and monitor oxygen saturation
- B. Monitor for fever and sputum production
- C. Auscultate heart sounds and check for cyanosis
- D. Monitor for chest pain and administer oxygen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.
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