ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?
- A. Assess level of consciousness and motor function
- B. Check for headache and nausea
- C. Monitor reflexes and pupil size
- D. Assess for tremors and confusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.
2. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
- A. Administer insulin
- B. Administer IV fluids
- C. Monitor blood glucose
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When managing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), it is crucial to administer insulin to lower blood sugar levels, administer IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, and monitor blood glucose levels regularly to ensure they are within the target range. Therefore, all of the above options are essential components of the comprehensive treatment plan for DKA. Administering insulin alone may lower blood sugar levels but will not address the fluid and electrolyte imbalances seen in DKA. Similarly, administering IV fluids alone may help with dehydration but will not address the high blood sugar levels or the need for insulin. Monitoring blood glucose alone is not sufficient to treat DKA; it must be accompanied by appropriate interventions to address the underlying causes and complications of the condition.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who underwent surgery for a hip fracture. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Clear lung sounds
- B. Fever
- C. Pain in the operative leg
- D. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. Fever in a postoperative client can indicate an infection, which is a serious complication and should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Clear lung sounds (Choice A) are a positive finding indicating normal respiratory function. Pain in the operative leg (Choice C) is expected postoperatively and should be managed with appropriate pain relief measures. Capillary refill of 2 seconds (Choice D) is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds) and is not a concerning finding postoperatively.
4. A nurse assisting with a childbirth class is discussing nonpharmacological strategies used during labor. Which of the following statements by a client indicates an understanding of cutaneous stimulation?
- A. Apply counter-pressure for back pain
- B. Use deep breathing exercises
- C. Visualize the baby's head
- D. Use massage therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Apply counter-pressure for back pain.' Counter-pressure involves applying pressure to the lower back to alleviate pain during labor. This technique is a form of cutaneous stimulation, which can help with pain relief. Choice B, deep breathing exercises, is a form of relaxation technique and does not directly involve cutaneous stimulation. Choice C, visualizing the baby's head, is a mental imagery technique and does not involve physical stimulation of the skin. Choice D, massage therapy, is a tactile stimulation technique but is not specifically focused on back pain relief through counter-pressure.
5. A client with active tuberculosis is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will continue taking my isoniazid until I am no longer contagious.
- B. I should take my prescribed medication for at least 6 months.
- C. I will need to have a TB skin test every 3 months.
- D. I should wear a mask at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should take antitubercular medications for a minimum of 6 months to ensure complete eradication of the infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication early can result in treatment failure and development of drug-resistant TB. Choice C is incorrect as regular TB skin tests are not needed once the client has been diagnosed and treated. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a mask at all times is not necessary for a client with active TB; proper cough etiquette should be followed instead.
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