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1. A client who has a new prosthesis for an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg needs teaching on its use. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Wear the prosthesis for 2 hours at a time
- B. Remove the prosthesis every other day
- C. Apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day
- D. Elevate the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day. This helps the client adjust to and maintain mobility. Choice A is incorrect because wearing the prosthesis for only 2 hours at a time may not be sufficient for proper adjustment. Choice B is incorrect as removing the prosthesis every other day is not a standard practice and may hinder the client's mobility. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis is unnecessary and not a recommended practice.
2. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has coronary artery disease (CAD) and is receiving aspirin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. History of gastrointestinal bleeding
- B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
- C. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
- D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: History of gastrointestinal bleeding. Aspirin therapy is contraindicated in clients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding because aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding. Option B, prothrombin time of 12 seconds, is within the normal range and does not indicate a concern related to aspirin therapy. Option C, platelet count of 180,000/mm³, is also within the normal range and does not suggest a need for reporting to the provider in the context of aspirin therapy. Option D, creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL, is within the normal range and is not directly related to aspirin therapy in this scenario.
4. What are the signs and symptoms of Cushing's syndrome, and how should they be managed?
- A. Weight gain, moon face; administer corticosteroids
- B. Hirsutism and thin extremities; manage with diuretics
- C. Purple striae, muscle weakness; provide dietary counseling
- D. Hypertension and bruising; manage with fluid restriction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms of Cushing's syndrome are weight gain and a moon face. Corticosteroids are used to manage Cushing's syndrome by reducing the overproduction of cortisol. Choice B is incorrect because hirsutism and thin extremities are not typical signs of Cushing's syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as purple striae and muscle weakness are more characteristic of the syndrome. Choice D is also incorrect as hypertension and bruising are not primary signs of Cushing's syndrome.
5. What is the key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
- A. Administer insulin
- B. Monitor blood glucose
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) involves a comprehensive approach that includes administering insulin to lower blood glucose levels, monitoring blood glucose levels to ensure they are within the target range, and administering IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Choosing 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate because all three interventions are essential components of DKA management. Administering insulin alone without addressing fluid status and monitoring blood glucose could lead to complications. Similarly, solely focusing on IV fluids or blood glucose monitoring without insulin administration would not effectively manage DKA.
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