ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged home following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following documents should the nurse plan to include with the discharge report?
- A. List of prescribed medications
- B. Potential complications to report
- C. Family contact details
- D. Dietary restrictions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complications to report. Including potential complications in the discharge report is crucial for ensuring proper follow-up care. This information helps the client and their caregivers to be aware of warning signs that may indicate a worsening condition or the need for immediate medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of discharge planning, but providing a list of potential complications to report takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's safety and well-being post-discharge.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a terminal illness and is approaching death. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of impending death?
- A. Hypertension.
- B. Tachycardia.
- C. Cold extremities.
- D. Diaphoresis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cold extremities are a critical sign of impending death as they indicate decreased circulation, leading to poor perfusion to the extremities. This phenomenon occurs as the body redirects blood flow to vital organs, preparing for the end of life. Hypertension and tachycardia are less likely to be seen in the terminal phase and are usually associated with other conditions like shock or sepsis. Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, may occur in various situations but is not a specific indicator of impending death in this context.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.
4. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Administer anticoagulants and monitor for bleeding
- B. Elevate the limb and administer pain relief
- C. Restrict mobility and apply warm compress
- D. Administer IV fluids and provide bed rest
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected DVT management involves administering anticoagulants to prevent clot growth and monitoring for signs of bleeding. Elevating the limb and administering pain relief (Choice B) may help alleviate symptoms but do not address the underlying issue of preventing clot progression. Restricting mobility and applying warm compress (Choice C) could potentially dislodge the clot and worsen the condition. Administering IV fluids and providing bed rest (Choice D) are not primary interventions for managing DVT.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Zolpidem
- C. Morphine
- D. Lorazepam
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access