Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged home following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following documents should the nurse plan to include with the discharge report?

• A. List of prescribed medications
• B. Potential complications to report
• C. Family contact details
• D. Dietary restrictions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complications to report. Including potential complications in the discharge report is crucial for ensuring proper follow-up care. This information helps the client and their caregivers to be aware of warning signs that may indicate a worsening condition or the need for immediate medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of discharge planning, but providing a list of potential complications to report takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's safety and well-being post-discharge.

2. How do you assess for dehydration in a pediatric patient?

• A. Check for dry mouth and decreased urine output
• B. Monitor skin turgor and capillary refill
• C. Assess for lethargy and irritability
• D. Monitor blood pressure and heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! When assessing for dehydration in a pediatric patient, checking for dry mouth and decreased urine output are crucial indicators. Dry mouth indicates reduced fluid intake or dehydration, while decreased urine output suggests decreased renal perfusion secondary to dehydration. Skin turgor and capillary refill are more indicative of perfusion status rather than dehydration specifically. Lethargy and irritability can be present in dehydrated patients but are more general signs of illness. Monitoring blood pressure and heart rate are important in assessing dehydration severity but are not the initial signs used for assessment.

3. What is the most important step when preparing to administer a blood transfusion?

• A. Check if the client has a fever
• B. Ensure the blood type is compatible with the client
• C. Administer the blood via IV push
• D. Ensure the blood is warmed to body temperature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensure the blood type is compatible with the client. This is the most crucial step in preparing for a blood transfusion to prevent severe transfusion reactions. Checking the client for a fever (Choice A) is important but not the most critical step. Administering blood via IV push (Choice C) is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered as a slow drip. Warming the blood to body temperature (Choice D) is not a standard practice and can lead to hemolysis, making it an incorrect choice.

4. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
• B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
• C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
• D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.

Similar Questions