a nurse is caring for a newborn who was transferred to the nursery 30 min after delivery which of the following actions should the nurse take first
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023

1. A newborn was transferred to the nursery 30 min after delivery. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a newborn is transferred to the nursery, the first action the nurse should take is to verify the newborn's identification. This step is crucial for ensuring the correct care is provided to the right newborn, promoting patient safety and preventing errors. Administering vitamin K (Choice C) is important but should not be the first action. Determining obstetrical risk factors (Choice D) is not the priority when the newborn is transferred to the nursery. Confirming (Choice A) and verifying (Choice B) have similar meanings, but 'verify' is a more appropriate term in this context.

2. A healthcare professional is discussing risk factors for urinary tract infections with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following conditions should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Urinary tract infections can be influenced by various factors. Epidural anesthesia, urinary bladder catheterization, and frequent pelvic examinations are all associated with an increased risk of UTIs. Epidural anesthesia can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract, urinary bladder catheterization can serve as a pathway for bacteria to enter the bladder, and frequent pelvic examinations can disrupt the natural flora and introduce bacteria. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risk factors to help prevent and manage UTIs effectively. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as all the listed conditions are significant risk factors for urinary tract infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them, when present, can contribute to the development of UTIs. It is essential for healthcare professionals to educate patients and colleagues about these risk factors to minimize the occurrence of UTIs.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and ballottement are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity. Ballottement is the rebound of the fetus when the cervix is tapped during a vaginal examination. Recognizing these signs is essential for healthcare providers in assessing pregnancy. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct as they are all probable signs of pregnancy. Choice D is the correct answer as it includes all the expected findings.

4. A healthcare professional is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is administered to counteract the effects of magnesium and restore calcium levels. Magnesium toxicity can lead to symptoms such as muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate helps in reversing these effects by competing with magnesium and preventing its adverse manifestations. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for magnesium toxicity. Pyridoxine is vitamin B6 and is not the antidote for magnesium toxicity. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement and is not used to treat magnesium sulfate toxicity.

5. When monitoring uterine contractions in a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the active phase of the first stage of labor, contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, leading to decreased placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes are within the normal range for the active phase of labor. Strong contractions and feeling contractions in the lower back are common experiences during labor and not necessarily concerning unless associated with other complications.

Similar Questions

A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn 1 hr after birth. Which of the following respiratory rates is within the expected reference range for a newborn?
During a weekly prenatal visit, a nurse is assessing a client at 38 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?
A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?
A client in the delivery room just delivered a newborn, and the nurse is planning to promote parent-infant bonding. What should the nurse prioritize?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses